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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 424

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Free Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

1.Which of the following statements is TRUE about filtering in MS Excel?
A. It is a function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.
B. It is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and returns the
value from the specified cell with the found value.
C. It is a feature of Excel to display the records that satisfies a certain condition.
D. It is a feature through which data can be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy.
70-412 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Filtering is a feature of Excel to display the records, which satisfies a certain condition. Filtered data
displays only the subset of data that meet the criteria that a user specifies and hides data that he
does not want to be displayed. Answer: D is incorrect. Sorting is a feature through which data can
be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy. Answer: B is incorrect. VLOOKUP
(Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and
returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a
function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.


2.Sam prepares a document. He inserts some tables in it. In one table, Sam wants to combine four
cells into a single cell. What should he do to accomplish the task?
A. Use Banded Columns option.
B. Use Split Cells option.
C. Use Merge Cells option.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The Merge Cells option is used to combine the selected cells into one cell. Answer: B is incorrect. The
Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into multiple rows and columns. Answer: A is incorrect. The
Banded Columns option is used to display different formatting for the even columns of the table.
Answer: D is incorrect. The Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected
row of the table becomes the first row of the new table.


3.Which of the following tabs will you click on the Word 2007 Ribbon to insert Table of Contents in a
document?
A. Insert B.
Home C.
Review
D. References
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
The References tab handles Table of Contents, footnotes, bibliographies, indexes and similar
material. It also helps to insert a “Table of Authorities”, which is a list of references in a legal
document. Answer: B is incorrect. The Home tab contains the most frequently used Word features,
such as changing fonts and font attributes, customizing paragraphs, using styles, and finding and
replacing the text. Answer: A is incorrect. The Insert tab handles anything that a user wants to insert
into a document, such as tables, pictures, charts, hyperlinks, bookmarks, headers and footers, etc.

Answer: C is incorrect. The Review tab is used to check spelling and grammar, look up a word in a
thesaurus, work in markup mode, review other people’s markups or compare documents.


4.Which of the following is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value?
A. SUBTOTAL
B. PMT()
C. NOW()
D. VLOOKUP
70-412 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
VLOOKUP (Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Syntax:
VLOOKUP(lookup_value, table_array, col_number, range_lookup) In the given syntax, lookup_value
is the value to be found in the leftmost column of the range. table_array is the range or data table to
be searched. col_number is the number of the column in the range from which the value is to be
returned. range_lookup is a logical argument to find an approximate match in case the specified value
is TRUE or an exact match in case the specified value is FALS E.
Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a function of Excel 2007 to return the subtotal in a column of a
list. Syntax: SUBTOTAL(function_num, ref1, ref2, ref3 ) In the syntax, function_num is the number
1 to 11 (includes hidden values) or 101 to 111 (ignores hidden values) that specifies which
function to use in calculating subtotals within a list. The number for each function is given in the table
below:

ref1, ref2, ref3… are the ranges or references to be included for calculating the subtotal. There can
be a maximum of 254 ranges or references that can be used with the function. Exampl
E. To get the subtotal of a sum of values in the range A2:A9, the following function will be written:
To include values in hidden rows – SUBTOTAL(9, A2:A9) To ignore values in hidden rows –
SUBTOTAL(109, A2:A9) If the range contains any subtotal, the function ignores it to avoid
recounting. The SUBTOTAL function works with columns or vertical ranges only. It does not work
with rows or horizontal ranges. Answer: B is incorrect. A PMT() function is used in Excel to

calculate payments due on a loan, assuming a constant interest rate and constant payments. Syntax:
PMT (Rate, NoOfPayments, PV, FV, Type) Here, Rate is the rate of interest to be
divided by 12 for monthly payments. NoOfPayments is the total number of payment for the loan. PV
is the principal value. FV is the forward value. It is the left over at the end of the payment cycle,
usually left blank. Type is either 0 or 1 indicating whether payments are made at the beginning or at
the end of the month. Usually left blank which indicates 0 (end of month). Answer: C is incorrect. The
NOW() function, in Excel, returns the time when the workbook was last opened. It means, if this
function is used in a workbook, its value will change every time the workbook is opened. The NOW()
function is not updated continuously. The value changes only when the worksheet is calculated or
when a macro that contains the function is run.


5.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. You are in the process of creating reports in Excel
2007. You need to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Which of the following
shortcut keys will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Ctrl+P
B. Ctrl+N
C. Ctrl+Shift+P
D. Shift+F11
70-412 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You will press Shift+F11 to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Answer: B is
incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+N will create a new workbook. Answer: A is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+P will
open the Print dialog box. Answer: C is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+Shift+P will open the “Format Cells”
dialog box.


6.State whether the following statement is true or false. “The AND() function in Excel evaluates
logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are true.”
A. False B.
True
70-412 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
The AND() function in Excel evaluates logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are
true. The function returns “False” if one or all arguments are false. Syntax
AND(LogicalCondition1,LogicalCondition2,..) Here, LogicalCondition1, LogicalCondition2 are test
conditions that can be either TRUE or FALS
E. There can be 1 to 255 logical conditions that can be provided as arguments with the AND()
function. Example The AND() function can also be used to evaluate values in arrays.


7.You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of preparing a document. You insert a
table in the document. You want to divide the table into two tables. What will you do to accomplish
the task?
A. Use Split Cells option.
B. Erase a column.

C. Erase a row.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected row of the table becomes the
first row of the new table. Answer: A is incorrect. Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into
multiple rows and columns. This option is available in the Layout tab that appears when the cell,
which is to be split, is selected. Answer: C is incorrect. Erasing a row will not divide a table into two
tables. It will only remove the row. Answer: B is incorrect. Erasing a column will not divide a table into
two tables. It will only remove the column.

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities,
targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented
faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management

C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION: 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of
service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether
the service is impacted or not
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service
improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate
the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?;
How do we keep the momentum going?

C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the
solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
100-105 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change
management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether
services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management

D. Availability management
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
100-105 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
100-105 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the
following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes

100-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the
infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle
100-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service
lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general
enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management
100-105 vce Answer: C

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 222

300-206

Free Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 9
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual
cloud environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose
two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which
two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server

300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
300-206

300-206

300-206

A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 19
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace

C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that
belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which
statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What are three of the RBAC views within Cisco IOS Software? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. CLI
C. Root
D. Super Admin
E. Guest
F. Super
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 23
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0
interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running
on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
300-206

300-206

300-206

According to the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA, what will happen if syslog server 10.10.2.40
fails?
A. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
B. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.

C. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
D. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
E. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.
F. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Jul 18, 2017
Q&As: 80

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210-250

Free Cisco  210-250 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

10.Mark the ST connector in the image given below.

210-250

USB: A Universal Serial Bus (USB) connector is used with the USB cable for connecting various electronic
devices to a computer. USB supports a data speed of up to 12 megabits per second. Two types of
connectors are used with USB, namely USB-A Type and USB-B Type.

11.In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes
to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Fraggle
C. Jolt
D. Teardrop
Answer: A
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
In the ping of death attack, the attacker sends an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes. Since the
operating system does not know how to handle a packet larger than 65,536 bytes, it either freezes or
crashes at the time of reassembling the packet. Now-a-days, operating systems discard such packets, so
the ping of death attack is not applicable at the present time.
Answer option C is incorrect. In the jolt DoS attack, an attacker fragments the ICMP packet in such a
manner that the target computer cannot reassemble it. In this situation, the CPU utilization of the target
system becomes 100 percent and the target system gets crashed.
Answer option D is incorrect. In a teardrop attack, a series of data packets are sent to the target system
with overlapping offset field values. As a result, the target system is unable to reassemble these packets
and is forced to crash, hang, or reboot.
Answer option B is incorrect. In a fraggle DoS attack, an attacker sends a large amount of UDP echo
request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the
intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP
broadcast to all the hosts, most of the IP addresses send an ECHO reply message. However, on a
multi-access broadcast network, hundreds of computers might reply to each packet when the target
network is overwhelmed by all the messages sent simultaneously. Due to this, the network becomes
unable to provide services to all the messages and crashes.


12.Which of the following provides security for network traffic (transmitted packets) at the Network or
Internet layer?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP D.
IPSec
Answer: D
210-250 pdf 
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and
digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured. Its contents cannot be

read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram’s origin to the
receiver.
Answer option A is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across
a packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.IP is the
primary protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering
distinguished protocol datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on
their addresses. For this purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for
datagram encapsulation. The first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet
Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet
Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed actively worldwide.
Answer option B is incorrect. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet
Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the Internet. With UDP, computer applications can
send messages, in this case referred to as datagrams, to other hosts on an Internet Protocol (IP) network
without requiring prior communications to set up special transmission channels or data paths. UDP is
sometimes called the Universal Datagram Protocol.
Answer option C is incorrect. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a reliable, connection-oriented
protocol operating at the transport layer of the OSI model. It provides a reliable packet delivery service
encapsulated within the Internet Protocol (IP). TCP guarantees the delivery of packets, ensures proper
sequencing of data, and provides a checksum feature that validates both the packet header and its data
for accuracy. If the network corrupts or loses a TCP packet during transmission, TCP is responsible for
retransmitting the faulty packet. It can transmit large amounts of data. Application layer protocols, such as
HTTP and FTP, utilize the services of TCP to transfer files between clients and servers.


13.You work as a Network Security Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based
network. You are incharge of the data and network security of the company. While performing a threat log
analysis, you observe that one of the database administrators is pilfering confidential data.
What type of threat is this?
A. Malware
B. External threat
C. Internal threat
D. Zombie
Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of threat is known as internal threat.
The difference between internal and external threats is as follows:
Internal Threat: Internal threats originate from within an organization. These threats come from the
employees and others having legal access. For example, a database administrator who has full access
rights can easily steal the data.
External Threat: External threats originate from outside an organization. These are the threats intended to
flood a network with large volumes of access requests. These threats can be countered by implementing
security controls on the perimeters of the network, such as firewalls, which limit user access to the
Internet.
Answer option B is incorrect. External threats originate from outside of an organization, not from within
the organization.

Answer option D is incorrect. A zombie is malicious software that secretly takes over another computer
connected to the Internet. The zombie’s creator uses the same computer to launch attacks that are difficult
to detect. Zombies are used in denial-of-service attacks. The attacker plants a zombie in hundreds of
computers belonging to unsuspecting third parties, and then uses these computers against targeted
websites. These computers are also called zombie computers. Zombies are also used to commit click
fraud against sites displaying pay per click advertising. Others can host phishing or money mule recruiting
websites.
Answer option A is incorrect. Malware is a combination of the terms malicious and software. It refers to a
variety of hostile programs, such as a virus or a Trojan horse, designed to damage or disrupt a computer.
It gathers information about a computer without the user’s permission or knowledge.


14.Which of the following Web sites is used by the users to browse various products and to make
purchases?
A. Micro-site
B. Internet forum
C. Social networking site
D. E-commerce site
Answer: D
210-250 vce 
Explanation:
Electronic commerce, commonly known as e-commerce or eCommerce, or e-business consists of the
buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other
computer networks. The amount of trade conducted electronically has grown extraordinarily with
widespread Internet usage. E-commerce sites can be used by users to browse various products and to
make purchases. Amazon.com is an example of an e-commerce site.
Answer option A is incorrect. A micro-site, also known as a mini site or weblet, is an Internet web design
term referring to an individual web page or cluster of pages which are meant to function as an auxiliary
supplement to a primary website. The micro-site’s main landing page most likely has its own domain name
or sub-domain. They are typically used to add a specialized group of information either editorial or
commercial. Such sites may be linked in to a main site or not or taken completely off a site’s server when
the site is used for a temporary purpose. The main distinction of a micro-site versus its parent site is its
purpose and specific cohesiveness as compared to the micro-site’s broader overall parent website.
Micro-sites used for editorial purposes may be a page or group of pages that, for example, may contain
information about a holiday, an event or similar item which gives more detailed information than a site’s
general content area may provide. A community organization may have its main site with all of the
organization’s basic information, but creates a separate, temporary micro-site to inform about a particular
activity, event, or similar.
Answer option B is incorrect. An Internet forum, or message board, is an online discussion site. It
originated as the modern equivalent of a traditional bulletin board, and a technological evolution of the
dialup bulletin board system. From a technological standpoint, forums or boards are web applications
managing user-generated content. People participating in an Internet forum may cultivate social bonds
and interest groups for a topic made from the discussions.
Answer option C is incorrect. Social networking Web sites provide a virtual community in which people
with a shared interest may communicate. These sites provide users the ability to create their profile page.
The users can post their thoughts, ideas, and anything else and can share it with their friends. Some

15.Cola Co. manufactures, markets, sells, and distributes non-alcoholic potables such as Lemcaa and
Thunder Up under its brand name Cola and uses green and red logo. Mola Co., a new company, starts
manufacturing, marketing, selling, and distributing non-alcoholic potables like Lumca and Cloud Up under
its brand name Mola and uses green and red logo.
Which of the following violations has been committed by Mola Co.?
A. Copyright infringement
B. Trademark infringement
C. Patent law
D. Plagiarism
Answer: B
210-250 dumps 
Explanation:
Trademark infringement is a violation of the exclusive rights attaching to a trademark without the
authorization of the trademark owner or any licensees (provided that such authorization was within the
scope of the license). Infringement may occur when one party, the ‘infringer’, uses a trademark that is
identical or confusingly similar to a trademark owned by another party, in relation to products or services
that are identical or similar to the products or services that the registration covers. An owner of a
trademark may commence legal proceedings against a party that infringes its registration.
Answer option C is incorrect. Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software
patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the
entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of
the patent of a product is limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for
only a specific length of time.
Answer option A is incorrect. Copyright infringement, also known as copyright violation, is the use of
material which is covered by copyright law, in a way that violates one of the original copyright owner’s
exclusive rights, such as the right to reproduce or perform the copyrighted work, or to make derivative
works that build upon it. The slang term bootleg (from the use of boots to smuggle items) is often used to
describe illegally copied material. For media such as movies and music, unauthorized copying and
distribution is occasionally called piracy or theft.
Answer option D is incorrect. Plagiarism is defined as the “use or close imitation of the language and
thoughts of another author and the representation of them as one’s own original work.” While plagiarism in
scholarship and journalism has a centuries-old history, the development of the Internet, where articles
appear as electronic text, has made the physical act of copying the work of others much easier. Plagiarism
is not copyright infringement. While both terms may apply to a particular act, they are different
transgressions. Copyright infringement is a violation of the rights of a copyright holder, when material
protected by copyright is used without consent. On the other hand, plagiarism is concerned with the
unearned increment to the plagiarizing author’s reputation that is achieved through false claims of
authorship.


17.In which of the following network topologies does the data travel around a loop in a single direction and
pass through each device?
A. Star topology B.
Ring topology C.
Mesh topology D.
Tree topology
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ring topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected in a
closed loop. Each computer or device in a Ring topology network acts as a repeater. It transmits data by
passing a token around the network in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that
want to send messages at the same time. If a token is free, the computer waiting to send data takes it,
attaches the data and destination address to the token, and sends it. When the token reaches its
destination computer, the data is copied. Then, the token gets back to the originator. The originator finds
that the message has been copied and received and removes the message from the token. Now, the
token is free and can be used by the other computers in the network to send data. In this topology, if one
computer fails, the entire network goes down.
Ring Topology:

210-250

Answer option A is incorrect. Star topology is a type of physical network design where each computer in
the network is connected to a central device, called hub, through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire.
Signals from the sending computer go to the hub and are then transmitted to all the computers in the
network. Since each workstation has a separate connection to the hub, it is easy to troubleshoot.
Currently, it is the most popular topology used for networks.
Star Topology:

210-250

Answer option C is incorrect. Mesh network topology is a type of physical network design where all
devices in a network are connected to each other with many redundant connections. It provides multiple
paths for the data traveling on the network to reach its destination. Mesh topology also provides
redundancy in the network. It employs the full mesh and partial mesh methods to connect devices. In a full
mesh topology network, each computer is connected to all the other computers. In a partial mesh topology
network, some of the computers are connected to all the computers, whereas some are connected to only
those computers with which they frequently exchange data.
Mesh Topology:
Answer option D is incorrect. In telecommunication networks, a tree network topology is a combination of
two or more star networks connected together. Each star network is a local area network (LAN) in which
there is a central computer or server to which all the workstation nodes are directly linked. The central
computers of the star networks are connected to a main cable called the bus. Thus, a tree network is a
bus network of star networks. The tree network topology is ideal when the workstations are located in
groups, with each group occupying a relatively small physical region. An example is a university campus in
which each building has its own star network, and all the central computers are linked in a campus-wide
system. It is easy to add or remove workstations from each star network. Entire star networks can be
added to, or removed from, the bus. If the bus has low loss and/or is equipped with repeaters, this
topology can be used in a wide area network (WAN) configuration. The tree topology is shown in the figure
below:

18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
Answer options B and C are incorrect. The ST and MT-RJ connectors do not use the push-pull
mechanism to make the connection.

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