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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 19, 2017
Q&As: 453

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Free Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching? A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations,
priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.
200-310 pdf Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 11
Your Help Desk is 24×7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming
snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. AverageAfter Call Work Time
200-310 vce Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive
work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement?
(Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
200-310 exam Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 15
Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that
service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on a decrease in
customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. Systemare more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
200-310 dumps Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 18
You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication?
(Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
200-310 pdf Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Name: DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
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QUESTION NO: 1. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.
What is the transmitted data rate for this frame?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 5.5 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
300-160 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2. Choose all that apply. Which techniques are used by moving devices to reserve air time?
A. Virtual Carrier Sense
B. Contention-Free
C. Power Save
D. RTS, CTS frames
Answer: AD
QUESTION NO: 3. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.

How is this frame being delivered?
A. From the mobile unit to the Access Point
B. From the Access Point to the mobile unit
C. From the mobile unit to another mobile unit in ad hoc mode
D. From a wired station to the Access Point
300-160 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed. Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUNAon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to
upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider. Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C 300-160 pdf first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems 300-160 vce is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.

During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener.The 300-160 exam cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment.
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom
monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
300-160 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3). Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment. Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud
Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests. Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss. The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
300-160 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.0
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 451

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Free Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question No : 16  Refer to the exhibit.400-201 dumps

An engineer is troubleshooting CSC-PE and CSC-CE configurations and finds that there is
a missing communication between Layer 3 VPN customer sites that are connected to
customer carrier provider.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The static route configured on CSC-PE1 is missing the vrf keyword on next-hop
information.
B. The CSC-PE1 does require knowledge of the Layer 3 VPN customer prefixes in order to
allocate and exchange Layer 3 VPN labels with CSC-CE1.
C. A CSC design requires selective label allocation.
D. The CSC-PE1 device is not allocating labels for the CSC backbone carrier route
reflector.
E. The CSC-PE1 and CSC-CE1 routers are not exchanging labeled IPv4 prefixes, which
results in LSP blackholing.
400-201 exam 
Answer: E

Question No : 17 In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Answer: D


Question No : 18  Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 19
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for a customer by using inter-AS MPLS
Option C. It is possible to redistribute ISP1 and ISP2 received loopback addresses into the
local IGP. How many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the ASBRs?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: C

Question No : 20 A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the
TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies
must be compressed. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
400-201 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 21 Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however
it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including
Internet access. Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support
IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Answer: F
Explanation:

Question No : 22
What is the BGP synchronization rule?
A. BGP should not advertise a route until that route has been learned via an IGP.
B. Routing information received through an EBGP session is not forwarding to another
EBGP neighbor, only to IBGP neighbors.
C. BGP neighbor peering are established and synchronized using TCP.
D. BGP should not advertise a route when that route has been learned via an IGP
E. Routing information received through an IBGP session is not forwarding to another IBGP
neighbor, only to EBGP neighbors.
400-201 vce Answer: A

Question No : 23 Two OSPF neighborrouters are stuck in the EXSTART state. After a while, the
neighborship goes down. A network engineer is debugging the issue when both routers
show the OSPF log message “too many retransmissions.” What is the possible root cause?
A. OSPF area mismatch
B. OSPF hello-interval mismatch
C. interface MTU mismatch
D. interface network type mismatch
Answer: C

Question No : 24 A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a
customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
400-201 exam Answer: B

Question No : 25 Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly.
Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the service provider core
network. The IP address space is designed as per following:
Service provide ip address range is: 10.0.0.0/16• All loopback addresses use subnet mask
/32
10.0.0.0/24 range is used for loopback addresses
All other subnet masks used for links are /24 and /25
Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP
functionalities?
A. ip prefix-list Llst1 deny 10.0.0./16 le 20 ge 25
!
mpls Idp label
allocate global prefix-list List1
B. access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 mpls Idp neighbor 10.0.0.1 labels accept 3
C. mpls Idp labelallocate global host-routes
D. mpls Idp password required for 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.1access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.2
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.3
Answer: C

Question No : 26
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs
for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which
solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
400-201 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 27
In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Answer: D

Question No : 28
In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to
traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
400-201 pdf Answer: B,C

Question No : 29
A content provider uses ISP-A and ISP-B for internet transit service for the purpose of
redundancy and load balancing. The content provider has address range assigned to it.
Which two techniques achieve the load balancing and redundancy for inbound traffic?
(Choose Two)
A. Use ISP-A for outbound traffic and ISP-B for inbound traffic.
B. Aggregate all prefixes received from both ISPs into a less-specific prefix.
C. BGP MED attribut
D. Address range split into two more specific prefixes, then advertise one specific prefix per
ISP.
E. BGP AS-prepend technique
F. BGP Local Preference attribute.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the
following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by
the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following
can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the
following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with
additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST
likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to
develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation
in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling
process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration
issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of
192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link
in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks
MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The
business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not
with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of
attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they
work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly
released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they
can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any
reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of
systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack
attempts.
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company.
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown
weaknesses within the code?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be
used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to
play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking
cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their
shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to
restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 424

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Free Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

1.Which of the following statements is TRUE about filtering in MS Excel?
A. It is a function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.
B. It is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and returns the
value from the specified cell with the found value.
C. It is a feature of Excel to display the records that satisfies a certain condition.
D. It is a feature through which data can be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy.
70-412 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Filtering is a feature of Excel to display the records, which satisfies a certain condition. Filtered data
displays only the subset of data that meet the criteria that a user specifies and hides data that he
does not want to be displayed. Answer: D is incorrect. Sorting is a feature through which data can
be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy. Answer: B is incorrect. VLOOKUP
(Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and
returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a
function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.


2.Sam prepares a document. He inserts some tables in it. In one table, Sam wants to combine four
cells into a single cell. What should he do to accomplish the task?
A. Use Banded Columns option.
B. Use Split Cells option.
C. Use Merge Cells option.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The Merge Cells option is used to combine the selected cells into one cell. Answer: B is incorrect. The
Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into multiple rows and columns. Answer: A is incorrect. The
Banded Columns option is used to display different formatting for the even columns of the table.
Answer: D is incorrect. The Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected
row of the table becomes the first row of the new table.


3.Which of the following tabs will you click on the Word 2007 Ribbon to insert Table of Contents in a
document?
A. Insert B.
Home C.
Review
D. References
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
The References tab handles Table of Contents, footnotes, bibliographies, indexes and similar
material. It also helps to insert a “Table of Authorities”, which is a list of references in a legal
document. Answer: B is incorrect. The Home tab contains the most frequently used Word features,
such as changing fonts and font attributes, customizing paragraphs, using styles, and finding and
replacing the text. Answer: A is incorrect. The Insert tab handles anything that a user wants to insert
into a document, such as tables, pictures, charts, hyperlinks, bookmarks, headers and footers, etc.

Answer: C is incorrect. The Review tab is used to check spelling and grammar, look up a word in a
thesaurus, work in markup mode, review other people’s markups or compare documents.


4.Which of the following is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value?
A. SUBTOTAL
B. PMT()
C. NOW()
D. VLOOKUP
70-412 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
VLOOKUP (Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Syntax:
VLOOKUP(lookup_value, table_array, col_number, range_lookup) In the given syntax, lookup_value
is the value to be found in the leftmost column of the range. table_array is the range or data table to
be searched. col_number is the number of the column in the range from which the value is to be
returned. range_lookup is a logical argument to find an approximate match in case the specified value
is TRUE or an exact match in case the specified value is FALS E.
Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a function of Excel 2007 to return the subtotal in a column of a
list. Syntax: SUBTOTAL(function_num, ref1, ref2, ref3 ) In the syntax, function_num is the number
1 to 11 (includes hidden values) or 101 to 111 (ignores hidden values) that specifies which
function to use in calculating subtotals within a list. The number for each function is given in the table
below:

ref1, ref2, ref3… are the ranges or references to be included for calculating the subtotal. There can
be a maximum of 254 ranges or references that can be used with the function. Exampl
E. To get the subtotal of a sum of values in the range A2:A9, the following function will be written:
To include values in hidden rows – SUBTOTAL(9, A2:A9) To ignore values in hidden rows –
SUBTOTAL(109, A2:A9) If the range contains any subtotal, the function ignores it to avoid
recounting. The SUBTOTAL function works with columns or vertical ranges only. It does not work
with rows or horizontal ranges. Answer: B is incorrect. A PMT() function is used in Excel to

calculate payments due on a loan, assuming a constant interest rate and constant payments. Syntax:
PMT (Rate, NoOfPayments, PV, FV, Type) Here, Rate is the rate of interest to be
divided by 12 for monthly payments. NoOfPayments is the total number of payment for the loan. PV
is the principal value. FV is the forward value. It is the left over at the end of the payment cycle,
usually left blank. Type is either 0 or 1 indicating whether payments are made at the beginning or at
the end of the month. Usually left blank which indicates 0 (end of month). Answer: C is incorrect. The
NOW() function, in Excel, returns the time when the workbook was last opened. It means, if this
function is used in a workbook, its value will change every time the workbook is opened. The NOW()
function is not updated continuously. The value changes only when the worksheet is calculated or
when a macro that contains the function is run.


5.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. You are in the process of creating reports in Excel
2007. You need to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Which of the following
shortcut keys will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Ctrl+P
B. Ctrl+N
C. Ctrl+Shift+P
D. Shift+F11
70-412 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You will press Shift+F11 to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Answer: B is
incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+N will create a new workbook. Answer: A is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+P will
open the Print dialog box. Answer: C is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+Shift+P will open the “Format Cells”
dialog box.


6.State whether the following statement is true or false. “The AND() function in Excel evaluates
logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are true.”
A. False B.
True
70-412 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
The AND() function in Excel evaluates logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are
true. The function returns “False” if one or all arguments are false. Syntax
AND(LogicalCondition1,LogicalCondition2,..) Here, LogicalCondition1, LogicalCondition2 are test
conditions that can be either TRUE or FALS
E. There can be 1 to 255 logical conditions that can be provided as arguments with the AND()
function. Example The AND() function can also be used to evaluate values in arrays.


7.You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of preparing a document. You insert a
table in the document. You want to divide the table into two tables. What will you do to accomplish
the task?
A. Use Split Cells option.
B. Erase a column.

C. Erase a row.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected row of the table becomes the
first row of the new table. Answer: A is incorrect. Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into
multiple rows and columns. This option is available in the Layout tab that appears when the cell,
which is to be split, is selected. Answer: C is incorrect. Erasing a row will not divide a table into two
tables. It will only remove the row. Answer: B is incorrect. Erasing a column will not divide a table into
two tables. It will only remove the column.

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities,
targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented
faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management

C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION: 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of
service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether
the service is impacted or not
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service
improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate
the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?;
How do we keep the momentum going?

C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the
solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
100-105 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change
management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether
services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management

D. Availability management
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
100-105 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
100-105 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the
following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes

100-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the
infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle
100-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service
lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general
enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management
100-105 vce Answer: C

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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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070-413

Free Microsoft 070-413 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Litware, Inc
Overview
Litware, Inc., is a manufacturing company. The company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle. The branch offices are
located in Los Angeles and Boston.
Existing Environment
070-413 exam Active Directory
The network contains an Active Directory forest named litwareinc.com. The forest contains a child domain for each office. The child domains are named
boston.litwareinc.com and la.litwareinc.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
In each domain, all of the client computer accounts reside in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers and all of the user accounts reside in an OU named
AllUsers.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers.
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Network Infrastructure
The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
Three virtual file servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Ten physical application servers that run Windows Server 2012
One virtual IP Address Management (IPAM) server that runs Windows Server 2012
One virtual Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
Each branch office has following servers:
One virtual file server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Two physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
All of the offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. The offices connect to each other by using T1 leased lines.
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
070-413 dumps Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only.
Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only.
Migrate to IPv6 addressing on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office. Some application servers in the Los Angeles office will have only IPv6 addresses.
Technical Requirements
The company identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com.
Migrate the DHCP servers from the physical servers to a virtual server that runs Windows Server 2012.
Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.
VPN Requirements
You plan to implement a third-party VPN server in each office. The VPN servers will be configured as RADIUS clients. A server that runs Windows Server 2012
will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Visualization Requirements
The company identifies the following visualization requirements:
Virtualize the application servers.
Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource usage of the Hyper-V hosts.
070-413 pdf Server Deployment Requirements
The company identifies the following requirements for the deployment of new servers on the network:
Deploy the new servers over the network.
Ensure that all of the server deployments are done by using multicast.
Security Requirements
A new branch office will open in Chicago. The new branch office will have a single read-only domain controller (RODC). Confidential attributes must not be
replicated to the Chicago office.
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)

C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based
installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
Reference: What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
070-413 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site
subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable
inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checke
(KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.
Reference: Understanding Sites, Subnets, and Site Links http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754697.aspx
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A
070-413 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements.
Which schema attribute properties should you recommend modifying?
A. isIndexed
B. searchFlags
C. isCriticalSystemObject
D. schemaFlagsEx
070-413 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: ). Confidential attributes must not be replicated to the Chicago office.
* Applies To: Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2012 This topic includes procedures for adding an attribute to the filtered attribute set (FAS) for a readonly
domain controller (RODC) and marking the attribute as confidential data. You can perform these procedures to exclude specific data from replicating to RODCs in
the forest. Because the data is not replicated to any RODCs, you can be assured that the data will not be revealed to an attacker who manages to successfully
compromise an RODC. In most cases, adding an attribute to the RODC FAS is completed by the developer of the application that added the attribute to the
schema.
· Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute · Verify that an attribute is added to the RODC FAS
– Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute To add an attribute to an RODC FAS, you must first determine the current searchFlags
value of the attribute that you want to add, and then set the following values for searchflags:
· To add the attribute to the RODC FAS, set the 10th bit to 0x200. · To mark the attribute as confidential, set the 7th bit to 0x080.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a migration strategy for the DHCP servers. The strategy must meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you recommend running on the physical DHCP servers?
A. Import-SmigServerSetting
B. Export-SmigServerSetting
C. Receive-SmigServerData
D. Send-SmigServerData
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Main office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 / each branch office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 /
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
* Example:
Command Prompt: C:\PS>
Export-SmigServerSetting -Feature “DHCP” -User All -Group -Path “c:\temp\store” -Verbose
This sample command exports the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Server and all other Windows features that are required by DHCP Server.
QUESTION 8
You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain.
Which tools should you use?
A. Gpfixup and Gpupdate
B. Rendom and Gpfixup
C. Gpupdate and Dcgpofix
D. Adprep and Rendom
070-413 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com
* Rendom.exe is a command-line tool that is used to rename Active Directory domains.
Reference: Rendom
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a server virtualization strategy that meets the technical requirements and the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows Server Backup
B. The Microsoft Virtual Machine Converter
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
D. Disk2vhd
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:

Virtualize the application servers.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource us The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012age of the Hyper-V hosts.
*
System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade Expanded hypervisor support, virtual application support and a myriad of other
upgrades are coming in the new VMM 2012.
There’s no doubt that Microsoft is making System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) a key component of the System Center suite. The scope of the product
is being expanded so much that it could be renamed “System Center Virtual Datacenter Manager.” The new version of VMM is currently in beta and is scheduled
for release in the second half of 2011. VMM can now do bare-metal installations on fresh hardware, create Hyper-V clusters instead of just managing them, and
communicate directly with your SAN arrays to provision storage for your virtual machines (VMs). The list of supported hypervisors has also arown–it includes not
only Hyper-V and VMware vSphere Hvpervisor, but
Reference: System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a remote access solution that meets the VPN requirements.
Which role service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Routing
B. Network Policy Server
C. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
D. Host Credential Authorization Protocol
070-413 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario:
A server that runs Windows Server 2012 will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Network Policy Server
Network Policy Server (NPS) allows you to create and enforce organization-wide network access policies for client health, connection request authentication, and
connection request authorization. In addition, you can use NPS as a Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) proxy to forward connection requests
to a server running NPS or other RADIUS servers that you configure in remote RADIUS server groups. NPS allows you to centrally configure and manage network
access authentication, authorization, are client health policies with the following three features: RADIUS server. NPS performs centralized authorization,
authorization, and accounting for wireless, authenticating switch, remote access dial-up and virtual private network (VNP) connections. When you use NPS as a
RADIUS server, you configure network access servers, such as wireless access points and VPN servers, as RADIUS clients in NPS. You also configure network
policies that NPS uses to authorize connection requests, and you can configure RADIUS accounting so that NPS logs accounting information to log files on the
local hard disk or in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
Reference: Network Policy Server
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a Group Policy strategy to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the AllComputers OU in each domain.
B. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to litwareinc.com and configure filtering.
C. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to each domain.
D. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Boston site.
Correct Answer: D
070-413 pdf Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only. Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only. Migrate to IPv6 addressing
on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office.
QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that NAP meets the technical requirements.
Which role services should you install?
A. Network Policy Server, Health Registration Authority and Host Credential Authorization Protocol
B. Health Registration Authority, Host Credential Authorization Protocol and Online Responder
C. Certification Authority, Network Policy Server and Health Registration Authority
D. Online Responder, Certification Authority and Network Policy Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
* Health Registration Authority
Applies To: Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012 Health Registration Authority (HRA) is a component of a Network Access Protection (NAP)
infrastructure that plays a central role in NAP Internet Protocol security (IPsec) enforcement. HRA obtains health certificates on behalf of NAP clients when they
are compliant with network health requirements. These health certificates authenticate NAP clients for IPsec-protected communications with other NAP clients on
an intranet. If a NAP client does not have a health certificate, the IPsec peer authentication fails and the NAP client cannot initiate communication with other IPsec
protected computers on the network. HRA is installed on a computer that is also running Network Policy Server (NPS) and Internet Information Services (IIS). If

they are not already installed, these services will be added when you install HRA.
Reference: Health Registration Authority

Testlet 1
Topic 4, Northwind Traders
Overview
Northwind Traders is a retail company.
The company has offices in Montreal and San Diego. The office in Montreal has 1,000 client computers. The office in San Diego has 100 computers. The
computers in the San Diego office are often replaced. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
070-413 dumps Existing Environment
Active Directory Environment
The network contains an Active Directory forest named northwindtraders.com. The forest contains two domains named northwindtraders.com and
west.northwindtraders.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All client computers run Windows 7.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The site in the Montreal office is named Site1. The site in the San Diego office is named Site2.
The forest contains four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

070-413

DC1, DC2, and DC3 are writable domain controllers. R0DC1 is read-only domain controller (RODC). All DNS zones are Active Directory-integrated. All zones
replicate to all of the domain controllers.
All of the computers in the San Diego office are configured to use RODC1 as their only DNS server.
The northwindtraders.com domain contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GP01 is applied to all of the users in the Montreal office.
All of the user accounts for the Montreal users are in the northwindtraders.com domain. All of the user accounts for the San Diego users are in the
west.northwindtraders.com domain.
Network Environment
Site1 contains the member servers in the northwindtraders.com domain shown in the following table.
070-413

Server1 connects to SAN storage that supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX). All virtual hard disks (VHDs) are stored on the SAN.
A web application named App1 is installed on Servers.
Server3 has a shared folder that contains sales reports. The sales reports are read frequently by the users in both offices. The reports are generated automatically
once per week by an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
A perimeter network in the Montreal office contains two standalone servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table

070-413

The servers in the perimeter network are accessible from the Internet by using a domain name suffix of public.northwindtraders.com.
Each administrator has a management computer that runs Windows 8.1.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Northwind Traders plans to implement the following changes:
On Server1, create four virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 222

300-206

Free Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 9
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual
cloud environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose
two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which
two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server

300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
300-206

300-206

300-206

A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 19
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace

C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that
belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which
statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What are three of the RBAC views within Cisco IOS Software? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. CLI
C. Root
D. Super Admin
E. Guest
F. Super
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 23
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0
interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running
on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
300-206

300-206

300-206

According to the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA, what will happen if syslog server 10.10.2.40
fails?
A. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
B. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.

C. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
D. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
E. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.
F. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Jul 18, 2017
Q&As: 80

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210-250

Free Cisco  210-250 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

10.Mark the ST connector in the image given below.

210-250

USB: A Universal Serial Bus (USB) connector is used with the USB cable for connecting various electronic
devices to a computer. USB supports a data speed of up to 12 megabits per second. Two types of
connectors are used with USB, namely USB-A Type and USB-B Type.

11.In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes
to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Fraggle
C. Jolt
D. Teardrop
Answer: A
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
In the ping of death attack, the attacker sends an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes. Since the
operating system does not know how to handle a packet larger than 65,536 bytes, it either freezes or
crashes at the time of reassembling the packet. Now-a-days, operating systems discard such packets, so
the ping of death attack is not applicable at the present time.
Answer option C is incorrect. In the jolt DoS attack, an attacker fragments the ICMP packet in such a
manner that the target computer cannot reassemble it. In this situation, the CPU utilization of the target
system becomes 100 percent and the target system gets crashed.
Answer option D is incorrect. In a teardrop attack, a series of data packets are sent to the target system
with overlapping offset field values. As a result, the target system is unable to reassemble these packets
and is forced to crash, hang, or reboot.
Answer option B is incorrect. In a fraggle DoS attack, an attacker sends a large amount of UDP echo
request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the
intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP
broadcast to all the hosts, most of the IP addresses send an ECHO reply message. However, on a
multi-access broadcast network, hundreds of computers might reply to each packet when the target
network is overwhelmed by all the messages sent simultaneously. Due to this, the network becomes
unable to provide services to all the messages and crashes.


12.Which of the following provides security for network traffic (transmitted packets) at the Network or
Internet layer?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP D.
IPSec
Answer: D
210-250 pdf 
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and
digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured. Its contents cannot be

read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram’s origin to the
receiver.
Answer option A is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across
a packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.IP is the
primary protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering
distinguished protocol datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on
their addresses. For this purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for
datagram encapsulation. The first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet
Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet
Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed actively worldwide.
Answer option B is incorrect. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet
Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the Internet. With UDP, computer applications can
send messages, in this case referred to as datagrams, to other hosts on an Internet Protocol (IP) network
without requiring prior communications to set up special transmission channels or data paths. UDP is
sometimes called the Universal Datagram Protocol.
Answer option C is incorrect. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a reliable, connection-oriented
protocol operating at the transport layer of the OSI model. It provides a reliable packet delivery service
encapsulated within the Internet Protocol (IP). TCP guarantees the delivery of packets, ensures proper
sequencing of data, and provides a checksum feature that validates both the packet header and its data
for accuracy. If the network corrupts or loses a TCP packet during transmission, TCP is responsible for
retransmitting the faulty packet. It can transmit large amounts of data. Application layer protocols, such as
HTTP and FTP, utilize the services of TCP to transfer files between clients and servers.


13.You work as a Network Security Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based
network. You are incharge of the data and network security of the company. While performing a threat log
analysis, you observe that one of the database administrators is pilfering confidential data.
What type of threat is this?
A. Malware
B. External threat
C. Internal threat
D. Zombie
Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of threat is known as internal threat.
The difference between internal and external threats is as follows:
Internal Threat: Internal threats originate from within an organization. These threats come from the
employees and others having legal access. For example, a database administrator who has full access
rights can easily steal the data.
External Threat: External threats originate from outside an organization. These are the threats intended to
flood a network with large volumes of access requests. These threats can be countered by implementing
security controls on the perimeters of the network, such as firewalls, which limit user access to the
Internet.
Answer option B is incorrect. External threats originate from outside of an organization, not from within
the organization.

Answer option D is incorrect. A zombie is malicious software that secretly takes over another computer
connected to the Internet. The zombie’s creator uses the same computer to launch attacks that are difficult
to detect. Zombies are used in denial-of-service attacks. The attacker plants a zombie in hundreds of
computers belonging to unsuspecting third parties, and then uses these computers against targeted
websites. These computers are also called zombie computers. Zombies are also used to commit click
fraud against sites displaying pay per click advertising. Others can host phishing or money mule recruiting
websites.
Answer option A is incorrect. Malware is a combination of the terms malicious and software. It refers to a
variety of hostile programs, such as a virus or a Trojan horse, designed to damage or disrupt a computer.
It gathers information about a computer without the user’s permission or knowledge.


14.Which of the following Web sites is used by the users to browse various products and to make
purchases?
A. Micro-site
B. Internet forum
C. Social networking site
D. E-commerce site
Answer: D
210-250 vce 
Explanation:
Electronic commerce, commonly known as e-commerce or eCommerce, or e-business consists of the
buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other
computer networks. The amount of trade conducted electronically has grown extraordinarily with
widespread Internet usage. E-commerce sites can be used by users to browse various products and to
make purchases. Amazon.com is an example of an e-commerce site.
Answer option A is incorrect. A micro-site, also known as a mini site or weblet, is an Internet web design
term referring to an individual web page or cluster of pages which are meant to function as an auxiliary
supplement to a primary website. The micro-site’s main landing page most likely has its own domain name
or sub-domain. They are typically used to add a specialized group of information either editorial or
commercial. Such sites may be linked in to a main site or not or taken completely off a site’s server when
the site is used for a temporary purpose. The main distinction of a micro-site versus its parent site is its
purpose and specific cohesiveness as compared to the micro-site’s broader overall parent website.
Micro-sites used for editorial purposes may be a page or group of pages that, for example, may contain
information about a holiday, an event or similar item which gives more detailed information than a site’s
general content area may provide. A community organization may have its main site with all of the
organization’s basic information, but creates a separate, temporary micro-site to inform about a particular
activity, event, or similar.
Answer option B is incorrect. An Internet forum, or message board, is an online discussion site. It
originated as the modern equivalent of a traditional bulletin board, and a technological evolution of the
dialup bulletin board system. From a technological standpoint, forums or boards are web applications
managing user-generated content. People participating in an Internet forum may cultivate social bonds
and interest groups for a topic made from the discussions.
Answer option C is incorrect. Social networking Web sites provide a virtual community in which people
with a shared interest may communicate. These sites provide users the ability to create their profile page.
The users can post their thoughts, ideas, and anything else and can share it with their friends. Some

15.Cola Co. manufactures, markets, sells, and distributes non-alcoholic potables such as Lemcaa and
Thunder Up under its brand name Cola and uses green and red logo. Mola Co., a new company, starts
manufacturing, marketing, selling, and distributing non-alcoholic potables like Lumca and Cloud Up under
its brand name Mola and uses green and red logo.
Which of the following violations has been committed by Mola Co.?
A. Copyright infringement
B. Trademark infringement
C. Patent law
D. Plagiarism
Answer: B
210-250 dumps 
Explanation:
Trademark infringement is a violation of the exclusive rights attaching to a trademark without the
authorization of the trademark owner or any licensees (provided that such authorization was within the
scope of the license). Infringement may occur when one party, the ‘infringer’, uses a trademark that is
identical or confusingly similar to a trademark owned by another party, in relation to products or services
that are identical or similar to the products or services that the registration covers. An owner of a
trademark may commence legal proceedings against a party that infringes its registration.
Answer option C is incorrect. Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software
patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the
entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of
the patent of a product is limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for
only a specific length of time.
Answer option A is incorrect. Copyright infringement, also known as copyright violation, is the use of
material which is covered by copyright law, in a way that violates one of the original copyright owner’s
exclusive rights, such as the right to reproduce or perform the copyrighted work, or to make derivative
works that build upon it. The slang term bootleg (from the use of boots to smuggle items) is often used to
describe illegally copied material. For media such as movies and music, unauthorized copying and
distribution is occasionally called piracy or theft.
Answer option D is incorrect. Plagiarism is defined as the “use or close imitation of the language and
thoughts of another author and the representation of them as one’s own original work.” While plagiarism in
scholarship and journalism has a centuries-old history, the development of the Internet, where articles
appear as electronic text, has made the physical act of copying the work of others much easier. Plagiarism
is not copyright infringement. While both terms may apply to a particular act, they are different
transgressions. Copyright infringement is a violation of the rights of a copyright holder, when material
protected by copyright is used without consent. On the other hand, plagiarism is concerned with the
unearned increment to the plagiarizing author’s reputation that is achieved through false claims of
authorship.


17.In which of the following network topologies does the data travel around a loop in a single direction and
pass through each device?
A. Star topology B.
Ring topology C.
Mesh topology D.
Tree topology
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ring topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected in a
closed loop. Each computer or device in a Ring topology network acts as a repeater. It transmits data by
passing a token around the network in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that
want to send messages at the same time. If a token is free, the computer waiting to send data takes it,
attaches the data and destination address to the token, and sends it. When the token reaches its
destination computer, the data is copied. Then, the token gets back to the originator. The originator finds
that the message has been copied and received and removes the message from the token. Now, the
token is free and can be used by the other computers in the network to send data. In this topology, if one
computer fails, the entire network goes down.
Ring Topology:

210-250

Answer option A is incorrect. Star topology is a type of physical network design where each computer in
the network is connected to a central device, called hub, through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire.
Signals from the sending computer go to the hub and are then transmitted to all the computers in the
network. Since each workstation has a separate connection to the hub, it is easy to troubleshoot.
Currently, it is the most popular topology used for networks.
Star Topology:

210-250

Answer option C is incorrect. Mesh network topology is a type of physical network design where all
devices in a network are connected to each other with many redundant connections. It provides multiple
paths for the data traveling on the network to reach its destination. Mesh topology also provides
redundancy in the network. It employs the full mesh and partial mesh methods to connect devices. In a full
mesh topology network, each computer is connected to all the other computers. In a partial mesh topology
network, some of the computers are connected to all the computers, whereas some are connected to only
those computers with which they frequently exchange data.
Mesh Topology:
Answer option D is incorrect. In telecommunication networks, a tree network topology is a combination of
two or more star networks connected together. Each star network is a local area network (LAN) in which
there is a central computer or server to which all the workstation nodes are directly linked. The central
computers of the star networks are connected to a main cable called the bus. Thus, a tree network is a
bus network of star networks. The tree network topology is ideal when the workstations are located in
groups, with each group occupying a relatively small physical region. An example is a university campus in
which each building has its own star network, and all the central computers are linked in a campus-wide
system. It is easy to add or remove workstations from each star network. Entire star networks can be
added to, or removed from, the bus. If the bus has low loss and/or is equipped with repeaters, this
topology can be used in a wide area network (WAN) configuration. The tree topology is shown in the figure
below:

18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
Answer options B and C are incorrect. The ST and MT-RJ connectors do not use the push-pull
mechanism to make the connection.

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