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Exam Code: 070-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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070-413

Free Microsoft 070-413 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Litware, Inc
Overview
Litware, Inc., is a manufacturing company. The company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle. The branch offices are
located in Los Angeles and Boston.
Existing Environment
070-413 exam Active Directory
The network contains an Active Directory forest named litwareinc.com. The forest contains a child domain for each office. The child domains are named
boston.litwareinc.com and la.litwareinc.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
In each domain, all of the client computer accounts reside in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers and all of the user accounts reside in an OU named
AllUsers.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers.
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Network Infrastructure
The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
Three virtual file servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Ten physical application servers that run Windows Server 2012
One virtual IP Address Management (IPAM) server that runs Windows Server 2012
One virtual Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
Each branch office has following servers:
One virtual file server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Two physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
All of the offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. The offices connect to each other by using T1 leased lines.
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
070-413 dumps Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only.
Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only.
Migrate to IPv6 addressing on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office. Some application servers in the Los Angeles office will have only IPv6 addresses.
Technical Requirements
The company identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com.
Migrate the DHCP servers from the physical servers to a virtual server that runs Windows Server 2012.
Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.
VPN Requirements
You plan to implement a third-party VPN server in each office. The VPN servers will be configured as RADIUS clients. A server that runs Windows Server 2012
will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Visualization Requirements
The company identifies the following visualization requirements:
Virtualize the application servers.
Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource usage of the Hyper-V hosts.
070-413 pdf Server Deployment Requirements
The company identifies the following requirements for the deployment of new servers on the network:
Deploy the new servers over the network.
Ensure that all of the server deployments are done by using multicast.
Security Requirements
A new branch office will open in Chicago. The new branch office will have a single read-only domain controller (RODC). Confidential attributes must not be
replicated to the Chicago office.
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)

C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based
installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
Reference: What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
070-413 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site
subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable
inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checke
(KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.
Reference: Understanding Sites, Subnets, and Site Links http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754697.aspx
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A
070-413 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements.
Which schema attribute properties should you recommend modifying?
A. isIndexed
B. searchFlags
C. isCriticalSystemObject
D. schemaFlagsEx
070-413 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: ). Confidential attributes must not be replicated to the Chicago office.
* Applies To: Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2012 This topic includes procedures for adding an attribute to the filtered attribute set (FAS) for a readonly
domain controller (RODC) and marking the attribute as confidential data. You can perform these procedures to exclude specific data from replicating to RODCs in
the forest. Because the data is not replicated to any RODCs, you can be assured that the data will not be revealed to an attacker who manages to successfully
compromise an RODC. In most cases, adding an attribute to the RODC FAS is completed by the developer of the application that added the attribute to the
schema.
· Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute · Verify that an attribute is added to the RODC FAS
– Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute To add an attribute to an RODC FAS, you must first determine the current searchFlags
value of the attribute that you want to add, and then set the following values for searchflags:
· To add the attribute to the RODC FAS, set the 10th bit to 0x200. · To mark the attribute as confidential, set the 7th bit to 0x080.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a migration strategy for the DHCP servers. The strategy must meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you recommend running on the physical DHCP servers?
A. Import-SmigServerSetting
B. Export-SmigServerSetting
C. Receive-SmigServerData
D. Send-SmigServerData
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Main office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 / each branch office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 /
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
* Example:
Command Prompt: C:\PS>
Export-SmigServerSetting -Feature “DHCP” -User All -Group -Path “c:\temp\store” -Verbose
This sample command exports the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Server and all other Windows features that are required by DHCP Server.
QUESTION 8
You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain.
Which tools should you use?
A. Gpfixup and Gpupdate
B. Rendom and Gpfixup
C. Gpupdate and Dcgpofix
D. Adprep and Rendom
070-413 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com
* Rendom.exe is a command-line tool that is used to rename Active Directory domains.
Reference: Rendom
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a server virtualization strategy that meets the technical requirements and the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows Server Backup
B. The Microsoft Virtual Machine Converter
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
D. Disk2vhd
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:

Virtualize the application servers.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource us The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012age of the Hyper-V hosts.
*
System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade Expanded hypervisor support, virtual application support and a myriad of other
upgrades are coming in the new VMM 2012.
There’s no doubt that Microsoft is making System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) a key component of the System Center suite. The scope of the product
is being expanded so much that it could be renamed “System Center Virtual Datacenter Manager.” The new version of VMM is currently in beta and is scheduled
for release in the second half of 2011. VMM can now do bare-metal installations on fresh hardware, create Hyper-V clusters instead of just managing them, and
communicate directly with your SAN arrays to provision storage for your virtual machines (VMs). The list of supported hypervisors has also arown–it includes not
only Hyper-V and VMware vSphere Hvpervisor, but
Reference: System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a remote access solution that meets the VPN requirements.
Which role service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Routing
B. Network Policy Server
C. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
D. Host Credential Authorization Protocol
070-413 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario:
A server that runs Windows Server 2012 will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Network Policy Server
Network Policy Server (NPS) allows you to create and enforce organization-wide network access policies for client health, connection request authentication, and
connection request authorization. In addition, you can use NPS as a Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) proxy to forward connection requests
to a server running NPS or other RADIUS servers that you configure in remote RADIUS server groups. NPS allows you to centrally configure and manage network
access authentication, authorization, are client health policies with the following three features: RADIUS server. NPS performs centralized authorization,
authorization, and accounting for wireless, authenticating switch, remote access dial-up and virtual private network (VNP) connections. When you use NPS as a
RADIUS server, you configure network access servers, such as wireless access points and VPN servers, as RADIUS clients in NPS. You also configure network
policies that NPS uses to authorize connection requests, and you can configure RADIUS accounting so that NPS logs accounting information to log files on the
local hard disk or in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
Reference: Network Policy Server
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a Group Policy strategy to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the AllComputers OU in each domain.
B. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to litwareinc.com and configure filtering.
C. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to each domain.
D. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Boston site.
Correct Answer: D
070-413 pdf Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only. Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only. Migrate to IPv6 addressing
on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office.
QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that NAP meets the technical requirements.
Which role services should you install?
A. Network Policy Server, Health Registration Authority and Host Credential Authorization Protocol
B. Health Registration Authority, Host Credential Authorization Protocol and Online Responder
C. Certification Authority, Network Policy Server and Health Registration Authority
D. Online Responder, Certification Authority and Network Policy Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
* Health Registration Authority
Applies To: Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012 Health Registration Authority (HRA) is a component of a Network Access Protection (NAP)
infrastructure that plays a central role in NAP Internet Protocol security (IPsec) enforcement. HRA obtains health certificates on behalf of NAP clients when they
are compliant with network health requirements. These health certificates authenticate NAP clients for IPsec-protected communications with other NAP clients on
an intranet. If a NAP client does not have a health certificate, the IPsec peer authentication fails and the NAP client cannot initiate communication with other IPsec
protected computers on the network. HRA is installed on a computer that is also running Network Policy Server (NPS) and Internet Information Services (IIS). If

they are not already installed, these services will be added when you install HRA.
Reference: Health Registration Authority

Testlet 1
Topic 4, Northwind Traders
Overview
Northwind Traders is a retail company.
The company has offices in Montreal and San Diego. The office in Montreal has 1,000 client computers. The office in San Diego has 100 computers. The
computers in the San Diego office are often replaced. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
070-413 dumps Existing Environment
Active Directory Environment
The network contains an Active Directory forest named northwindtraders.com. The forest contains two domains named northwindtraders.com and
west.northwindtraders.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All client computers run Windows 7.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The site in the Montreal office is named Site1. The site in the San Diego office is named Site2.
The forest contains four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

070-413

DC1, DC2, and DC3 are writable domain controllers. R0DC1 is read-only domain controller (RODC). All DNS zones are Active Directory-integrated. All zones
replicate to all of the domain controllers.
All of the computers in the San Diego office are configured to use RODC1 as their only DNS server.
The northwindtraders.com domain contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GP01 is applied to all of the users in the Montreal office.
All of the user accounts for the Montreal users are in the northwindtraders.com domain. All of the user accounts for the San Diego users are in the
west.northwindtraders.com domain.
Network Environment
Site1 contains the member servers in the northwindtraders.com domain shown in the following table.
070-413

Server1 connects to SAN storage that supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX). All virtual hard disks (VHDs) are stored on the SAN.
A web application named App1 is installed on Servers.
Server3 has a shared folder that contains sales reports. The sales reports are read frequently by the users in both offices. The reports are generated automatically
once per week by an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
A perimeter network in the Montreal office contains two standalone servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table

070-413

The servers in the perimeter network are accessible from the Internet by using a domain name suffix of public.northwindtraders.com.
Each administrator has a management computer that runs Windows 8.1.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Northwind Traders plans to implement the following changes:
On Server1, create four virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

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Exam Code: 300-206
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Updated: Jul 30, 2017
Q&As: 222

300-206

Free Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 9
Which technology can be deployed with a Cisco ASA 1000V to segregate Layer 2 access within a virtual
cloud environment?
A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
B. Cisco VSG
C. WSVA
D. ESVA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? (Choose
two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which
two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices.
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server

300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 17
CORRECT TEXT
300-206

300-206

300-206

A. Please check the steps in explanation part below
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 19
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace

C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
300-206 exam Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that
belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which
statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
300-206 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What are three of the RBAC views within Cisco IOS Software? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. CLI
C. Root
D. Super Admin
E. Guest
F. Super
Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 23
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0
interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running
on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
300-206 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
300-206

300-206

300-206

According to the logging configuration on the Cisco ASA, what will happen if syslog server 10.10.2.40
fails?
A. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
B. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.

C. New connections through the ASA will be blocked and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
D. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and system logs will be sent to server 10.10.2.41.
E. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and informational system logs will be sent to the
internalbuffer.
F. New connections through the ASA will be allowed and debug system logs will be sent to the internal
buffer.
300-206 dumps Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-250
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Updated: Jul 18, 2017
Q&As: 80

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210-250

Free Cisco  210-250 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

10.Mark the ST connector in the image given below.

210-250

USB: A Universal Serial Bus (USB) connector is used with the USB cable for connecting various electronic
devices to a computer. USB supports a data speed of up to 12 megabits per second. Two types of
connectors are used with USB, namely USB-A Type and USB-B Type.

11.In which of the following DoS attacks does an attacker send an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes
to the target system?
A. Ping of death
B. Fraggle
C. Jolt
D. Teardrop
Answer: A
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
In the ping of death attack, the attacker sends an ICMP packet larger than 65,536 bytes. Since the
operating system does not know how to handle a packet larger than 65,536 bytes, it either freezes or
crashes at the time of reassembling the packet. Now-a-days, operating systems discard such packets, so
the ping of death attack is not applicable at the present time.
Answer option C is incorrect. In the jolt DoS attack, an attacker fragments the ICMP packet in such a
manner that the target computer cannot reassemble it. In this situation, the CPU utilization of the target
system becomes 100 percent and the target system gets crashed.
Answer option D is incorrect. In a teardrop attack, a series of data packets are sent to the target system
with overlapping offset field values. As a result, the target system is unable to reassemble these packets
and is forced to crash, hang, or reboot.
Answer option B is incorrect. In a fraggle DoS attack, an attacker sends a large amount of UDP echo
request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These UDP requests have a spoofed source address of the
intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP
broadcast to all the hosts, most of the IP addresses send an ECHO reply message. However, on a
multi-access broadcast network, hundreds of computers might reply to each packet when the target
network is overwhelmed by all the messages sent simultaneously. Due to this, the network becomes
unable to provide services to all the messages and crashes.


12.Which of the following provides security for network traffic (transmitted packets) at the Network or
Internet layer?
A. IP
B. UDP
C. TCP D.
IPSec
Answer: D
210-250 pdf 
Explanation:
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and
digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured. Its contents cannot be

read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram’s origin to the
receiver.
Answer option A is incorrect. The Internet Protocol (IP) is a protocol used for communicating data across
a packet-switched inter-network using the Internet Protocol Suite, also referred to as TCP/IP.IP is the
primary protocol in the Internet Layer of the Internet Protocol Suite and has the task of delivering
distinguished protocol datagrams (packets) from the source host to the destination host solely based on
their addresses. For this purpose, the Internet Protocol defines addressing methods and structures for
datagram encapsulation. The first major version of addressing structure, now referred to as Internet
Protocol Version 4 (IPv4), is still the dominant protocol of the Internet, although the successor, Internet
Protocol Version 6 (IPv6), is being deployed actively worldwide.
Answer option B is incorrect. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet
Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the Internet. With UDP, computer applications can
send messages, in this case referred to as datagrams, to other hosts on an Internet Protocol (IP) network
without requiring prior communications to set up special transmission channels or data paths. UDP is
sometimes called the Universal Datagram Protocol.
Answer option C is incorrect. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a reliable, connection-oriented
protocol operating at the transport layer of the OSI model. It provides a reliable packet delivery service
encapsulated within the Internet Protocol (IP). TCP guarantees the delivery of packets, ensures proper
sequencing of data, and provides a checksum feature that validates both the packet header and its data
for accuracy. If the network corrupts or loses a TCP packet during transmission, TCP is responsible for
retransmitting the faulty packet. It can transmit large amounts of data. Application layer protocols, such as
HTTP and FTP, utilize the services of TCP to transfer files between clients and servers.


13.You work as a Network Security Administrator for NetPerfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based
network. You are incharge of the data and network security of the company. While performing a threat log
analysis, you observe that one of the database administrators is pilfering confidential data.
What type of threat is this?
A. Malware
B. External threat
C. Internal threat
D. Zombie
Answer: C
Explanation:
This type of threat is known as internal threat.
The difference between internal and external threats is as follows:
Internal Threat: Internal threats originate from within an organization. These threats come from the
employees and others having legal access. For example, a database administrator who has full access
rights can easily steal the data.
External Threat: External threats originate from outside an organization. These are the threats intended to
flood a network with large volumes of access requests. These threats can be countered by implementing
security controls on the perimeters of the network, such as firewalls, which limit user access to the
Internet.
Answer option B is incorrect. External threats originate from outside of an organization, not from within
the organization.

Answer option D is incorrect. A zombie is malicious software that secretly takes over another computer
connected to the Internet. The zombie’s creator uses the same computer to launch attacks that are difficult
to detect. Zombies are used in denial-of-service attacks. The attacker plants a zombie in hundreds of
computers belonging to unsuspecting third parties, and then uses these computers against targeted
websites. These computers are also called zombie computers. Zombies are also used to commit click
fraud against sites displaying pay per click advertising. Others can host phishing or money mule recruiting
websites.
Answer option A is incorrect. Malware is a combination of the terms malicious and software. It refers to a
variety of hostile programs, such as a virus or a Trojan horse, designed to damage or disrupt a computer.
It gathers information about a computer without the user’s permission or knowledge.


14.Which of the following Web sites is used by the users to browse various products and to make
purchases?
A. Micro-site
B. Internet forum
C. Social networking site
D. E-commerce site
Answer: D
210-250 vce 
Explanation:
Electronic commerce, commonly known as e-commerce or eCommerce, or e-business consists of the
buying and selling of products or services over electronic systems such as the Internet and other
computer networks. The amount of trade conducted electronically has grown extraordinarily with
widespread Internet usage. E-commerce sites can be used by users to browse various products and to
make purchases. Amazon.com is an example of an e-commerce site.
Answer option A is incorrect. A micro-site, also known as a mini site or weblet, is an Internet web design
term referring to an individual web page or cluster of pages which are meant to function as an auxiliary
supplement to a primary website. The micro-site’s main landing page most likely has its own domain name
or sub-domain. They are typically used to add a specialized group of information either editorial or
commercial. Such sites may be linked in to a main site or not or taken completely off a site’s server when
the site is used for a temporary purpose. The main distinction of a micro-site versus its parent site is its
purpose and specific cohesiveness as compared to the micro-site’s broader overall parent website.
Micro-sites used for editorial purposes may be a page or group of pages that, for example, may contain
information about a holiday, an event or similar item which gives more detailed information than a site’s
general content area may provide. A community organization may have its main site with all of the
organization’s basic information, but creates a separate, temporary micro-site to inform about a particular
activity, event, or similar.
Answer option B is incorrect. An Internet forum, or message board, is an online discussion site. It
originated as the modern equivalent of a traditional bulletin board, and a technological evolution of the
dialup bulletin board system. From a technological standpoint, forums or boards are web applications
managing user-generated content. People participating in an Internet forum may cultivate social bonds
and interest groups for a topic made from the discussions.
Answer option C is incorrect. Social networking Web sites provide a virtual community in which people
with a shared interest may communicate. These sites provide users the ability to create their profile page.
The users can post their thoughts, ideas, and anything else and can share it with their friends. Some

15.Cola Co. manufactures, markets, sells, and distributes non-alcoholic potables such as Lemcaa and
Thunder Up under its brand name Cola and uses green and red logo. Mola Co., a new company, starts
manufacturing, marketing, selling, and distributing non-alcoholic potables like Lumca and Cloud Up under
its brand name Mola and uses green and red logo.
Which of the following violations has been committed by Mola Co.?
A. Copyright infringement
B. Trademark infringement
C. Patent law
D. Plagiarism
Answer: B
210-250 dumps 
Explanation:
Trademark infringement is a violation of the exclusive rights attaching to a trademark without the
authorization of the trademark owner or any licensees (provided that such authorization was within the
scope of the license). Infringement may occur when one party, the ‘infringer’, uses a trademark that is
identical or confusingly similar to a trademark owned by another party, in relation to products or services
that are identical or similar to the products or services that the registration covers. An owner of a
trademark may commence legal proceedings against a party that infringes its registration.
Answer option C is incorrect. Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software
patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the
entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of
the patent of a product is limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for
only a specific length of time.
Answer option A is incorrect. Copyright infringement, also known as copyright violation, is the use of
material which is covered by copyright law, in a way that violates one of the original copyright owner’s
exclusive rights, such as the right to reproduce or perform the copyrighted work, or to make derivative
works that build upon it. The slang term bootleg (from the use of boots to smuggle items) is often used to
describe illegally copied material. For media such as movies and music, unauthorized copying and
distribution is occasionally called piracy or theft.
Answer option D is incorrect. Plagiarism is defined as the “use or close imitation of the language and
thoughts of another author and the representation of them as one’s own original work.” While plagiarism in
scholarship and journalism has a centuries-old history, the development of the Internet, where articles
appear as electronic text, has made the physical act of copying the work of others much easier. Plagiarism
is not copyright infringement. While both terms may apply to a particular act, they are different
transgressions. Copyright infringement is a violation of the rights of a copyright holder, when material
protected by copyright is used without consent. On the other hand, plagiarism is concerned with the
unearned increment to the plagiarizing author’s reputation that is achieved through false claims of
authorship.


17.In which of the following network topologies does the data travel around a loop in a single direction and
pass through each device?
A. Star topology B.
Ring topology C.
Mesh topology D.
Tree topology
Answer: B
Explanation:
Ring topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected in a
closed loop. Each computer or device in a Ring topology network acts as a repeater. It transmits data by
passing a token around the network in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that
want to send messages at the same time. If a token is free, the computer waiting to send data takes it,
attaches the data and destination address to the token, and sends it. When the token reaches its
destination computer, the data is copied. Then, the token gets back to the originator. The originator finds
that the message has been copied and received and removes the message from the token. Now, the
token is free and can be used by the other computers in the network to send data. In this topology, if one
computer fails, the entire network goes down.
Ring Topology:

210-250

Answer option A is incorrect. Star topology is a type of physical network design where each computer in
the network is connected to a central device, called hub, through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire.
Signals from the sending computer go to the hub and are then transmitted to all the computers in the
network. Since each workstation has a separate connection to the hub, it is easy to troubleshoot.
Currently, it is the most popular topology used for networks.
Star Topology:

210-250

Answer option C is incorrect. Mesh network topology is a type of physical network design where all
devices in a network are connected to each other with many redundant connections. It provides multiple
paths for the data traveling on the network to reach its destination. Mesh topology also provides
redundancy in the network. It employs the full mesh and partial mesh methods to connect devices. In a full
mesh topology network, each computer is connected to all the other computers. In a partial mesh topology
network, some of the computers are connected to all the computers, whereas some are connected to only
those computers with which they frequently exchange data.
Mesh Topology:
Answer option D is incorrect. In telecommunication networks, a tree network topology is a combination of
two or more star networks connected together. Each star network is a local area network (LAN) in which
there is a central computer or server to which all the workstation nodes are directly linked. The central
computers of the star networks are connected to a main cable called the bus. Thus, a tree network is a
bus network of star networks. The tree network topology is ideal when the workstations are located in
groups, with each group occupying a relatively small physical region. An example is a university campus in
which each building has its own star network, and all the central computers are linked in a campus-wide
system. It is easy to add or remove workstations from each star network. Entire star networks can be
added to, or removed from, the bus. If the bus has low loss and/or is equipped with repeaters, this
topology can be used in a wide area network (WAN) configuration. The tree topology is shown in the figure
below:

18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
18.Which of the following search engines can be operated by only using a mouse?
A. Meta-search engine
B. Mono-search engine
C. Web search engine
D. Selection-based search engine
Answer: D
210-250 exam 
Explanation:
A selection-based search engine is a search engine system in which the user invokes a search query
using only the mouse. A selection-based search system allows the user to search the internet for more
information about any keyword or phrase contained within a document or webpage in any software
application on his desktop computer using the mouse. In a selection-based search engine, the search
engine is available outside of the Web browser and highlighting a word or phrase in any document pops
up the search tool.
Answer option C is incorrect. A web search engine is designed to search for information on the World
Wide Web. The search results are usually presented in a list of results and are commonly called hits. The
information may consist of web pages, images, information and other types of files. Some search engines
also mine data available in databases or open directories. Unlike Web directories, which are maintained by
human editors, search engines operate algorithmically or are a mixture of algorithmic and human input.
Answer option A is incorrect. A meta-search engine is also known as a metacrawler. It is a search tool
that sends user requests to several other search engines and/or databases and aggregates the results
into a single list or displays them according to their source. Meta-search engines enable users to enter
search criteria once and access several search engines simultaneously. Meta-search engines operate on
the premise that the Web is too large for any one search engine to index it all and that more
comprehensive search results can be obtained by combining the results from several search engines. This
also may save the user from having to use multiple search engines separately.
Examples: Dogpile and Vivisimo.
Answer option B is incorrect. There is no such type of search engine.


19.Which of the following connectors uses the push-pull mechanism to make the connection? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. LC
B. ST
C. MT-RJ
D. SC
Answer: D and A
Explanation:
The Subscriber connector (SC) and the Lucent connector (LC) use the push-pull mechanism to make the
Answer options B and C are incorrect. The ST and MT-RJ connectors do not use the push-pull
mechanism to make the connection.

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