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Free Microsoft 070-496 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question: 1
DRAG DROP
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server with one project collection and multiple build machines. A development team installs and configures a build service on a new build machine. You need to be able to validate that the installation and configuration meets your organization’s requirements and follows its best practices. At which service would you perform the following tasks? (To answer, drag the appropriate build component to the correct standards- checking task in the answer area. Each build component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

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Question: 2
You are planning to install a new Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You need to ensure that the minimum supported version of Microsoft SQL Server is installed. Which version should you install?
A. SQL Server 2005
B. SQL Server 2008 32-bit
C. SQL Server 2008 64-bit
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. SQL Server 2012
070-496 exam Answer: D
Question: 3
To support your development team’s upgrade from Visual Studio 2010 to Visual Studio 2012, you also upgrade from Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2010 to TFS 2012. You need to provide a TFS 2012 test environment that:
• Includes data and source code from your existing TFS 2010 environment and

• Allows your developers to test the new TFS 2012 and Visual Studio 2012 features while keeping the current TFS 2010 environment intact. What should you do?
A. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same server as TFS 2010. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
B. Install TFS 2012 on a new server. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
C. Clone the existing TFS 2010 environment (including the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services) on new servers and update the internal IDs. Upgrade the cloned environment to TFS 2012.
D. Copy the existing TFS 2010 database, SharePoint, and SQL Server Reporting services to a new set of servers. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same hardware as TFS 2010, and point TFS 2012 to the new servers.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and a virtual test environment that uses Lab Management 2012 along with System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) 2010. You want to install a test virtual machine that is hosted within a lab environment. You need to ensure that the test virtual machine can support all the features of Lab Management 2012. Which component should you install on the test virtual machine?
A. Agents for Visual Studio 2012
B. Visual Studio Build Agent 2012
C. Visual Studio Test Agent 2012
D. Visual Studio Lab Agent 2012
070-496 dumps Answer: A
Question: 5
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server named TFS1. SharePoint and Reporting Services components are also installed and configured for TFS on the same server. You need to be able to access the SharePoint Project Portal from the TFS server by using the following URL: http://tfs.fabrikam.com. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL.
B. From Visual Studio Team Explorer, edit the portal settings.
C. Run the TFSC0nfIg.exe SharePointportal command.
D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, configure the Alternate Access Mappings.
Answer: D
Question: 6
Your network environment includes a Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 named TFS1 that contains two project collections named PC1 and PC2. A build server named Bi is configured with a build controller named C1 and an agent named A1 that runs build definitions created in Pd. A development team wants to create a gated check-in build definition on PC2. You need to perform a supported infrastructure enhancement to run PC2 build definitions. What should you do?
A.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, migrate controller C1 and install a new controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
B.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, install a build controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the B2 build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
C.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, update the Al agent to use controllers C1 and C2.
D.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
070-496 pdf Answer: B
Question: 7
Your network environment is configured according to the following table:
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Your TFS environment is configured with the following URLs:
• TFS: http://tfssrv:8080/tfs
• Reporting: http://tfssrv/reports
• SharePoint: http://tfssrv/sites
You need to configure only the TFS URL to be the following fully qualified domain name (FQDN): http://tfs.contoso.com. You log on to the application-tier server. What should you do next?

A. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the host name with the friendly name.
B. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Notification URL text box.
C. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the server URL with the friendly name.
D. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Server URL text box.
Answer: B

 

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Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 234

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Free Microsoft 70-411 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 82
Which Decision rule type is best used to display nested “if” statements? (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
70-411 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 83
What happens if none of the rows in a Decision Table evaluate to True? (Choose One)
A. The table does not return a result value
B. The table’s next-highest ancestor is evaluated
C. The table returns a default ‘otherwise’ value
D. The system cycles through the table again to check for errors
Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
A requirement specification states that if a test score is between 91 and 100, assign the grade A; 81 – 90, assign a B; 71 – 80, assign a C. Which two rule types are appropriate for this requirement? (Choose Two)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. When Condition
D. Flow Action
70-411 dumps Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 85
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 86
(True or False) Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
70-411 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 87
(True or False) Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single cell in a Decision Table rule using multiple OR conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 88
Which rule type is not classified as a decision rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. Map Value
D. When
E. Declare Expressions
70-411 vce Answer: E
QUESTION: 89
Which of the following is not associated with the Decision shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision table
B. Map value
C. When rule
D. Decision tree
Answer: C
QUESTION: 90
(True or False) When PRPC evaluates a decision tree, if the entire tree is processed without returning a true result, the Otherwise value is returned.
A. True
B. False
70-411 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 91
(True or False) A When rule can be used to conditionally allow a user to perform an
action.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 92
Select the answer that best describes how PRPC executes a decision tree. (Choose One)
A. PRPC evaluates the if portion of the array
B. PRPC continues until it reaches a Return statement
C. PRPC returns the Otherwise value if the entire tree is processed without encountering a Return statement
D. PRPC performs all of the above actions when evaluating a decision tree

70-411 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 93
A When rule is referenced by which flow shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Fork
C. Connector
D. Assignment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 94
A Decision shape in a flow can represent either a decision or a fork. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a decision and a fork? (Choose One)
A. There is no difference; a decision and a fork are interchangeable
B. A decision requires an Else connector, but a fork does not
C. A fork references a Boolean expression; a decision does not
D. A decision references a rule; a fork does not
70-411 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 96
(True or False) When a Section rule is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must also be opened and saved.

A. True
B. False
70-411 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 97
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value. On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field be set? (Choose One)
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition
D. Always
Answer: C
QUESTION: 98
What are three rule types that can be identified by using the Rules Inspector? (Choose Three)
A. Property
B. Data Transform
C. Constraints
D. Section
E. Harness
70-411 exam Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 99
The term Dynamic Select refers to . (Choose One)
A. the process used during Rule Resolution
B. a PRPC decision rule
C. a UI control that displays a drop-down list with dynamically-generated values
D. the process used to generate an end user’s RuleSet list
Answer: C

QUESTION 100
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F’xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. “‘s^ ‘s nc* ‘elated to price
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined
QUESTION 101
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 102
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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Free Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 200 desktop computers that run Windows Vista Service Pack 2(SP2). All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1 to OU1. You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to computers that run Windows 8. What should you do?
A. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
B. Create and link a WMI filter to GPO1.
C. Run the Set-GPInheritancecmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
D. Run the Set-GPLinkcmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WMI Filtering is used to get information of the system and apply the GPO on it with the condition is met.Security filtering: apply a GPO to a specific group (members of the group)
QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1. What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You make a change to GPO1. You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which tool should you use?
A. TheSecedit command
B. The Invoke-GpUpdatecmdlet
C. Group Policy Object Editor
D. Server Manager
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains an Edge Server named Server1. Server1 is configured as a DirectAccess server. Server1 has the following settings: Internal DNS name: Server1.contoso.com External DNS name: dal.contoso.com Internal IPv6 address: 2002:cla8:6a:3333::l External IPv4 address: 65.55.37.62
Your company uses split-brain DNS for the contoso.com zone. You run the Remote Access Setup wizard as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to ensure that client computers on the Internet can establish DirectAccess connections to Server1. Which additional name suffix entry should you add from the Remote Access Setup wizard?
A. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
B. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
C. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
D. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
70-417 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* In a non-split-brain DNS environment, the Internet namespace is different from the intranet namespace. For example, the Contoso Corporation uses contoso.com on the Internet and corp.contoso.com on the intranet. Because all intranet resources use the corp.contoso.com DNS suffix, the NRPT rule for corp.contoso.com routes all DNS name queries for intranet resources to intranet DNS servers. DNS name queries for names with the contoso.com suffix do not match the corp.contoso.com intranet namespace rule
in the NRPT and are sent to Internet DNS servers.
* Split-brain DNS is a configuration method that enables proper resolution of names (e.g., example.com) from both inside and outside of your local network. Note: For split-brain DNS deployments, you must list the FQDNs that are duplicated on the Internet and intranet and decide which resources the DirectAccess client should reach, the intranet version or the public (Internet) version. For each name that corresponds to a resource for which you want DirectAccess clients to reach the public version, you must add the corresponding FQDN as an exemption rule to the NRPT for your DirectAccess clients. Name suffixes that do not have corresponding DNS servers are treated as exemptions.
Reference: Design Your DNS Infrastructure for DirectAccess
QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Access server role installed.  DirectAccess is implemented on Server1 by using the default configuration. You discover that DirectAccess clients do not use DirectAccess when accessing websites on the Internet. You need to ensure that DirectAccess clients access all Internet websites by using their DirectAccess connection. What should you do?
A. Configure a DNS suffix search list on the DirectAccess clients.
B. Enable the Route all traffic through the internal network policy setting in the DirectAccess Server
Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Configure DirectAccess to enable force tunneling.
D. Disable the DirectAccess Passive Mode policy setting in the DirectAccess Client Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION NO: 43
Which characteristic differentiates an IP storage adapter from a traditional network interface card (NIC)?
A. 2 Gbps data rate
B. TCP/IP offload engine (TOE)
C. jumbo frames
D. link aggregation
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link
B. Fabric Lane
C. Fabric Long
D. Fabric Loop
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN
B. E ports
C. Name Server
D. Logical Units
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
A company needs to backup its data without application interruption. Cost and application performance are both important. The data Can be backed up at night when the applications an intensive. What must be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape
B. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to the tape.
C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back tue snapshot up to the tape
D. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
What is the maximum porntecial bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 4 Gb SAN?
A. 400 Mbps
B. 400 MBps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 800 MBps
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server
B. rename the Zone Server
C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch
D. create and activate required zone set on the switch
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM
B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM
C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters
D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN
B. NAS
C. CAS
D. DAS
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday’s process backed up all changes since
Sunday’s backup. Tuesday’s process backed up all changes since Sunday’s backup including changed on Monday.
What type of backup is this?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Clone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk to disk (D2D) backup solutions?
A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library.
B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes
C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL
D. Disk array works as a “temporary cache” for the backup software
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three times already?
A. latest full must be restored
B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored
C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored
D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 55
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel
B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel
C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit
D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit
70-698 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
Which statement describes the “cylinder” in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved
B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media
C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located’
D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 57
Which method protects data bu maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk
B. mirroring
C. parity RAID
D. NDMP
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 58
Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy.
B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy
C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks
D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI
B. the network connection is on a dedicated network
C. they are using a software initiator
D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop
B. Node Link
C. Node Long
D. Node LISM
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

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Question: 34
As an HR Professional you must recognize and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affect your performance as an HR Professional. What term describes the illegal agreement of the management to give an individual a job, as long as the person does not join or be involved with a labor union?
A. Yellow dog contract
B. Scab
C. Shill contract
D. Non-union agreement
810-403 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A yellow dog contract is an agreement between management and an individual that gives a person a job as long as the person does not join a union. The Norris-LaGuardia Act prohibited federal courts from enforcing yellow dog contracts. Answer option B is incorrect. A scab is a derogatory term assigned to a person who will cross a picket line to work for an organization experiencing a strike by workers. Answer option C is incorrect. A shill contract is not a valid term. Answer option D is incorrect. A non-union agreement is not a valid term for this scenario.

Question: 35
Which one of the following presents the seven stages of internal consulting in the correct order?
A. Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
B. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
C. Gathering agreement to the project plan, Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
D. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
810-403 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The seven stages of internal consulting are as follows:
1.Exploring the situation
2.Gathering agreement to the project plan
3.Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings
4.Developing recommendations
5.Presenting the findings and recommendations
6.Implementing
7.Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option A is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting.

Question: 36
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages or benefits, to men and women who perform substantially equal work for the same employer, in the same establishment, and under similar working conditions. The law defined substantial equality of job content on four factors. Which one of the following is not one of the four factors this law defines?
A. Effort
B. Working conditions
C. Skill
D. Education
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 defines the substantial equality of job contents based on skills, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Skill, effort, and working conditions are defined as part of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Question: 37
Which of the following is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Employee self-assessment
C. Performance management
D. Supervisory training
810-403 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance management is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively. Performance management includes activities to ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
Answer option D is incorrect. Supervisory training generally involves topics related to interactions with employees, such as performance management, progressive discipline, performance appraisals, workplace safety, and training.
 Answer option A is incorrect. Performance appraisal is a structure for documenting individual performance. Performance appraisal can contribute to productive relationships between employees and their supervisors. Answer option B is incorrect. Employee self-assessment process is meant to be a two-way conversation. In this process, employees are asked to assess their own performance as part of the appraisal.
Question: 38
Which of the following are established by Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees
B. Minimum wage requirement
C. Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
D. Health insurance requirement
Answer: B, C, and A
Explanation:
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 established the following:
Minimum wage requirement Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees Answer option D is incorrect. Health insurance requirement are not established by FLSA.
Question: 39
You are completing a Form I-9 with a newly hired employee. Which one of the following documents is not allowed as a proof of identity and employment eligibility for the newly hired employee?
A. Driver’s license
B. Expired US passport
C. Certificate of naturalization
D. Unexpired reentry permit
810-403 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
A driver’s license is a document that is acceptable to establish identity, but it is not acceptable as a document that confirms eligibility of employment. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An expired US passport, certificate of naturalization, and unexpired reentry permit are legitimate documents for the proof of employment eligibility and for identity.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 129:
STPs connect to ________ over A links.
A. The 800 database
B. Calling name data bases
C. Each other
D. Switches
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 130:
Common channel signal packets are exchanged using:
A. Routers.
B. Bridges.
C. STPs.
D. Switching processors.
Answer: C
QUESTION 131:
The national architecture that uses SS7 to provide services such as calling name
display is called the:
A. Integrated Services Digital Network.
B. Superior Signaling Network.
C. Advanced Intelligent Network.
D. National Advanced Information Infrastructure.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 132:
The terminating switch sends a query to a database asking for a subscriber name
using:
A. Advanced MF signaling.
B. ISDN Q.931 signaling.

C. SS7 messaging.
D. AIN address signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
The process of connecting one input to another for a period of time is:
A. Switching.
B. Transmission.
C. Bridging.
D. Routing.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 134:
The three basic functions of switches are concentration, _______ and expansion
A. Transmission
B. Signaling
C. Addressing
D. Distribution
Answer: D
QUESTION 135:
OAM&P capabilities include translations, testing, provisioning, and one other very
important function called:
A. Switching.
B. Billing.
C. Conversion.
D. Detection.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 136:
Step by step switches operated on:
A. Touchtone signals.
B. A single digit at each switch.
C. 110 volts AC power.

D. A millisecond switching cycle.
Answer: B
QUESTION 137:
The switches in a crossbar type switching system are at the intersection of:
A. Vertical and horizontal bars.
B. Streets and avenues.
C. Vertical and horizontal transistors.
D. Up and down magnets.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 138:
Time division switching stages are a characteristic of:
A. Analog stored program control switches.
B. Digital stored program control switches.
C. Signal transfer points.
D. Crossbar switching systems.
Answer: B
QUESTION 139:
DS0s within a DS1 or higher are switched in a:
A. Add-drop multiplexer.
B. Space-division switch.
C. Time-division multiplexed switch.
D. Crossbar switch.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 140:
The basic components of the time division switch are control logic, a buffer and:
A. Crosspoint switch.
B. Time-slot counter.
C. Memory.
D. Input/output.

Answer: B
QUESTION 141:
A space-division stage:
A. Uses a crosspoint switch.
B. Uses a buffer memory.
C. Switches time slots within a DS1.
D. Is not used in a digital switch.
210-260 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 142:
A digital switch is made up of the network fabric and:
A. Signaling processor.
B. Signal transfer point.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Control.
Answer: A
QUESTION 143:
Time-division switches and __________ make up the switching fabric of a digital
switch.
A. Signaling processors
B. Crossbar switches
C. Control processors
D. Space-division switches
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 144:
Optical switching are not currently used because:
A. Crossbar systems are less expensive.
B. Optical switches lack required OAM&P features.
C. Optical switching methodologies are still experimental.
D. Of difficulties in conversion between electrical and optical signals.

Answer: C
QUESTION 145:
Important considerations in justifying deployment of new telecommunications
technology include ________, revenue enhancement, security and regulation.
A. ITU standard migration
B. Teleconferencing
C. Cost reduction
D. Internet telephony
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Consideration of multiple styles of people interacting via telecommunications should
result in:
A. An increase in the software content of the solution.
B. Multiple solutions to identified needs.
C. Discarding solutions which serve a small percentage of customers.
D. More versatile call centers with Internet connectivity.
Answer: D
QUESTION 147:
You have business continuity as a means of improving security in the CO. What is
the second concern you should address?
A. Employee education
B. Reporting processes
C. Intrusion detection
D. Hackers
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 148:
You have identified intrusion detection as a means of improving security. What is
the second concern in regards to telephony?
A. Identifying threats
B. Identifying common attacks on the CO

C. Identifying common vulnerabilities in systems
D. Identifying business continuity concerns
Answer: D
QUESTION 149:
What does a traffic table enable you to do?
A. Determine the number of necessary lines.
B. Determine the number of customers served.
C. Determine the number of available lines.
D. Determine the number of connections made over a period of time.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 150:
Which of the following helps you determine the number of necessary lines?
A. A line matrix
B. Service criteria
C. A traffic table
D. A connectivity map
Answer: C
QUESTION 151:
Erlang B extended is used when:
A. Blocked calls are queued.
B. Blocked calls are denied.
C. Blocked calls result in customer retries.
D. Blocked calls go to a “call back later” announcement.
210-260 vce Answer:
QUESTION 152:
What type of signal is exchanged between computer networks?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Network
D. Stand-alone

Answer: A
QUESTION 153:
What is the most common transmission type for low-speed data communications?
A. Encoded digital
B. Encoded analog
C. Unencoded digital
D. Unencoded analog
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 154:
What kind of equipment are modems and CSU/DSUs?
A. Hosts
B. Terminals
C. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. Data communications equipment (DCE)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Q&As: 395

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Free Juniper JN0-102 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)
A. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.
B. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.
C. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.
D. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
What is the last usable IP address in the 218.6.0.0/17 network?
A. 218.6.125.254
B. 218.6.126.254
C. 218.6.127.254
D. 218.6.128.254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the PFE?
A. The PFE controls the RE by providing Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.
B. The PFE implements advanced services such as policing, stateless firewall filtering, and class of service.
C. The PFE sends traffic to the RE for systematic packet forwarding.
D. The PFE receives hardware and environmental status messages from the RE.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You are asked to change the cable on interface fe-4/2/3.
Which statement is correct?
A. The cable is found on port 4, FPC 2, and slot 3.
B. The cable is found on slot 2, port 3, and FPC 4.
C. The cable is found on FPC 4, slot 3, and port 2.
D. The cable is found on slot 2, FPC 3, and port 4.
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC  Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
B. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
C. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*-2/*/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
D. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-2/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You receive an alarm that your Junos device is experiencing problems regarding temperature. Which two commands would you use to investigate this problem? (Choose two.)
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis pic fpc-slot <value> pic-slot <value>
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: BD
JN0-102 vce QUESTION 8
Which command displays the egress interfaces selected on the PFE for destination prefixes?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show route table
C. show route table extensive
D. show pfefwdd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
— Exhibit —
[edit policy-options]
[email protected]# show
policy-statement block-routes {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer;
}
then reject;
}
term 2 {
then accept;
}}
— Exhibit —
You are asked to ensure that your device does not accept any prefixes within the 172.27.0.0/24 network.
You have applied the policy shown in the exhibit, but the 172.27.0.0/24 route is still present on your device.
Which configuration will resolve this problem?
A. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
B. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
C. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 upto /30 [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
D. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
E. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which command will display the contents of the forwarding table?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show forwarding
C. show configuration
D. show interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?
A. The forwarding plane is the intelligence of the platform.
B. The forwarding plane is based on an X86 architecture.
C. The forwarding plane maintains the routing tables, bridging table, and primary forwarding table.
D. The forwarding plane implements policers, stateless firewall filters, and class of service.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
You want to log in to the router and make a configuration change.
After logging in as the root user, what is the next command you must enter?
A. enable
B. configure
C. edit
D. cli
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A. root authentication
B. default gateway
C. host name
D. management services
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which two login-class permissions could permit a user to view the system hierarchy of the active
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. system permission
B. view-configuration permission
C. network permission
D. super-user permission
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which command displays the amount of space available on the storage media?
A. show chassis routing-engine
B. show system file-storage
C. file list
D. show system storage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which three steps are part of the root password recovery process? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Run the recovery script.
C. Reset the root password.
D. Reset the user passwords.
E. Load factory-default configuration.
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
Which command will display only direct routes?
A. show route
B. show route inet.0 direct
C. show ip route direct
D. show route protocol direct
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address 192.168.100.1.
Which command successfully completes this task?
A. [email protected]# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. [email protected]# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. [email protected]# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. [email protected]# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
1.If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B
3.Exhibit.

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
300-135 dumps Answer: AD
4.You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
 new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B
5.Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
300-135 pdf Answer: D
6.Exhibit.

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C
7.What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
300-135 vce Answer: CD
8.Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C
9.You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
300-135 exam Answer: B
10.You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set D.
only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

11.You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference C.
apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity D.
apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
300-135 dumps Answer: A

12.Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B
13.You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
300-135 pdf Answer: C
14.Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve C.
Difference D.
Color Burn
Answer: A
15.When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers. D.
It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
300-135 vce Answer: D

16.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
17.Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
300-135 exam Correct:B C D
18.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
19.Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
300-135 dumps Correct:B
20.Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Q&As: 102

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Free Microsoft 70-775 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 29
What action would destroy all association links for an object in one operation?
A. DestroyLinkAction
B. DestroyObjectAction
C. ClearAssociationAction
D. ClearStructuralFeatureAction
E. RemoveStructuralFeatureAction
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. Behaviors can be executed.
B. The classifier cannot be abstract.
C. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
D. State machine transitions can be triggered.
E. The classifier cannot be an association class.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?
A. SetVariableAction
B. ClearVariableAction
C. ReadVariableAction
D. AddVariableValueAction
E. RemoveVariableValueAction
70-775 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes
Answer: F
QUESTION: 33
What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node
70-775 pdf Answer: E
QUESTION: 34
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
What does an activity partition contain? (Choose two)
A. nodes
B. edges
C. states
D. classes
E. lifelines
F. messages
70-775 vce Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 36
How many arrows can connect to a partition?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows will be
given values?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control values are
provided to the outgoing arrow?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
If a central buffer has one value and three outgoing arrows go to three actions, how many of the
actions will receive the value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41
What elements can have variables in activity diagrams?
A. actions
B. activities
C. partitions
D. structured nodes
E. structured edges
70-775 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
What determines whether a clause executes?
A. guards
B. classes
C. behaviors
D. test nodes
E. parameters
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
In the exhibit, what is true about the diagram MOpt?

A. All traces of MOpt include message p.
B. All traces of MOpt include message q.
C. Receiving p will come before sending q.
D. No traces of MOpt include both messages p and q.
70-775 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 44
In the exhibit, what is true about Mpar?

A. Every trace contains all three messages.
B. Sending p must always precede sending q.
C. Receiving p must always precede receiving q.
D. There are legal traces that do not contain message q.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
In the exhibit, what is true about Mstrict?

A. The whole Mstrict has only one legal trace.
B. Sending r precedes sending p in all legal traces.
C. Sending q precedes reception of r in all legal traces.
D. Within the strict combined fragment, sending a signal will immediately be followed by the
reception of that signal.
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
What does it mean when message m is ignored in a combined fragment?
A. If m happens, the system should abort.
B. Nothing happens within the fragment until m appears.
C. Message m appears only in illegal traces of the fragment.
D. One or more m messages may appear at any point within the fragment.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are valid?
(Choose three)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
E. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
70-775 dumps Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 48
In the exhibit, what are the valid traces for Cont1?

A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages
Answer: B
QUESTION: 49
What is the notation for gates?
A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
C. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name
70-775 pdf Answer: B

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Exam Code: LX0-103
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 1
Q&As: 120

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Free CompTIA LX0-103 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using LX0-103 dumps SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to
perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to
rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take
effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based
package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time
that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

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