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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Q&As: 395

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Free Juniper JN0-102 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)
A. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.
B. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.
C. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.
D. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
What is the last usable IP address in the 218.6.0.0/17 network?
A. 218.6.125.254
B. 218.6.126.254
C. 218.6.127.254
D. 218.6.128.254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the PFE?
A. The PFE controls the RE by providing Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.
B. The PFE implements advanced services such as policing, stateless firewall filtering, and class of service.
C. The PFE sends traffic to the RE for systematic packet forwarding.
D. The PFE receives hardware and environmental status messages from the RE.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You are asked to change the cable on interface fe-4/2/3.
Which statement is correct?
A. The cable is found on port 4, FPC 2, and slot 3.
B. The cable is found on slot 2, port 3, and FPC 4.
C. The cable is found on FPC 4, slot 3, and port 2.
D. The cable is found on slot 2, FPC 3, and port 4.
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC  Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
B. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
C. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*-2/*/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
D. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-2/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You receive an alarm that your Junos device is experiencing problems regarding temperature. Which two commands would you use to investigate this problem? (Choose two.)
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis pic fpc-slot <value> pic-slot <value>
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: BD
JN0-102 vce QUESTION 8
Which command displays the egress interfaces selected on the PFE for destination prefixes?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show route table
C. show route table extensive
D. show pfefwdd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
— Exhibit —
[edit policy-options]
[email protected]# show
policy-statement block-routes {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer;
}
then reject;
}
term 2 {
then accept;
}}
— Exhibit —
You are asked to ensure that your device does not accept any prefixes within the 172.27.0.0/24 network.
You have applied the policy shown in the exhibit, but the 172.27.0.0/24 route is still present on your device.
Which configuration will resolve this problem?
A. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
B. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
C. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 upto /30 [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
D. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
E. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which command will display the contents of the forwarding table?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show forwarding
C. show configuration
D. show interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?
A. The forwarding plane is the intelligence of the platform.
B. The forwarding plane is based on an X86 architecture.
C. The forwarding plane maintains the routing tables, bridging table, and primary forwarding table.
D. The forwarding plane implements policers, stateless firewall filters, and class of service.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
You want to log in to the router and make a configuration change.
After logging in as the root user, what is the next command you must enter?
A. enable
B. configure
C. edit
D. cli
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A. root authentication
B. default gateway
C. host name
D. management services
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which two login-class permissions could permit a user to view the system hierarchy of the active
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. system permission
B. view-configuration permission
C. network permission
D. super-user permission
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which command displays the amount of space available on the storage media?
A. show chassis routing-engine
B. show system file-storage
C. file list
D. show system storage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which three steps are part of the root password recovery process? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Run the recovery script.
C. Reset the root password.
D. Reset the user passwords.
E. Load factory-default configuration.
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
Which command will display only direct routes?
A. show route
B. show route inet.0 direct
C. show ip route direct
D. show route protocol direct
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address 192.168.100.1.
Which command successfully completes this task?
A. [email protected]# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. u[email protected]# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. [email protected]# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. [email protected]# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
1.If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B
3.Exhibit.

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
300-135 dumps Answer: AD
4.You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
 new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B
5.Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
300-135 pdf Answer: D
6.Exhibit.

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C
7.What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
300-135 vce Answer: CD
8.Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C
9.You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
300-135 exam Answer: B
10.You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set D.
only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

11.You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference C.
apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity D.
apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
300-135 dumps Answer: A

12.Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B
13.You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
300-135 pdf Answer: C
14.Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve C.
Difference D.
Color Burn
Answer: A
15.When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers. D.
It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
300-135 vce Answer: D

16.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
17.Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
300-135 exam Correct:B C D
18.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
19.Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
300-135 dumps Correct:B
20.Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Q&As: 102

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Free Microsoft 70-775 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 29
What action would destroy all association links for an object in one operation?
A. DestroyLinkAction
B. DestroyObjectAction
C. ClearAssociationAction
D. ClearStructuralFeatureAction
E. RemoveStructuralFeatureAction
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. Behaviors can be executed.
B. The classifier cannot be abstract.
C. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
D. State machine transitions can be triggered.
E. The classifier cannot be an association class.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?
A. SetVariableAction
B. ClearVariableAction
C. ReadVariableAction
D. AddVariableValueAction
E. RemoveVariableValueAction
70-775 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes
Answer: F
QUESTION: 33
What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node
70-775 pdf Answer: E
QUESTION: 34
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
What does an activity partition contain? (Choose two)
A. nodes
B. edges
C. states
D. classes
E. lifelines
F. messages
70-775 vce Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 36
How many arrows can connect to a partition?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows will be
given values?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control values are
provided to the outgoing arrow?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
If a central buffer has one value and three outgoing arrows go to three actions, how many of the
actions will receive the value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41
What elements can have variables in activity diagrams?
A. actions
B. activities
C. partitions
D. structured nodes
E. structured edges
70-775 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
What determines whether a clause executes?
A. guards
B. classes
C. behaviors
D. test nodes
E. parameters
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
In the exhibit, what is true about the diagram MOpt?

A. All traces of MOpt include message p.
B. All traces of MOpt include message q.
C. Receiving p will come before sending q.
D. No traces of MOpt include both messages p and q.
70-775 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 44
In the exhibit, what is true about Mpar?

A. Every trace contains all three messages.
B. Sending p must always precede sending q.
C. Receiving p must always precede receiving q.
D. There are legal traces that do not contain message q.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
In the exhibit, what is true about Mstrict?

A. The whole Mstrict has only one legal trace.
B. Sending r precedes sending p in all legal traces.
C. Sending q precedes reception of r in all legal traces.
D. Within the strict combined fragment, sending a signal will immediately be followed by the
reception of that signal.
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
What does it mean when message m is ignored in a combined fragment?
A. If m happens, the system should abort.
B. Nothing happens within the fragment until m appears.
C. Message m appears only in illegal traces of the fragment.
D. One or more m messages may appear at any point within the fragment.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are valid?
(Choose three)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
E. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
70-775 dumps Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 48
In the exhibit, what are the valid traces for Cont1?

A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages
Answer: B
QUESTION: 49
What is the notation for gates?
A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
C. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name
70-775 pdf Answer: B

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Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 1
Q&As: 120

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QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using LX0-103 dumps SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to
perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to
rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take
effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based
package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time
that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 19, 2017
Q&As: 453

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QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching? A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations,
priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.
200-310 pdf Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 11
Your Help Desk is 24×7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming
snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. AverageAfter Call Work Time
200-310 vce Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive
work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement?
(Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
200-310 exam Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 15
Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that
service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on a decrease in
customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. Systemare more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
200-310 dumps Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 18
You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication?
(Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
200-310 pdf Answer: B,C,D

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QUESTION NO: 1. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.
What is the transmitted data rate for this frame?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 5.5 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
300-160 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2. Choose all that apply. Which techniques are used by moving devices to reserve air time?
A. Virtual Carrier Sense
B. Contention-Free
C. Power Save
D. RTS, CTS frames
Answer: AD
QUESTION NO: 3. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.

How is this frame being delivered?
A. From the mobile unit to the Access Point
B. From the Access Point to the mobile unit
C. From the mobile unit to another mobile unit in ad hoc mode
D. From a wired station to the Access Point
300-160 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed. Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUNAon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to
upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider. Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C 300-160 pdf first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems 300-160 vce is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.

During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener.The 300-160 exam cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment.
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom
monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
300-160 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3). Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment. Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud
Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests. Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss. The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
300-160 exam Answer: B

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Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.0
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 451

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Free Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question No : 16  Refer to the exhibit.400-201 dumps

An engineer is troubleshooting CSC-PE and CSC-CE configurations and finds that there is
a missing communication between Layer 3 VPN customer sites that are connected to
customer carrier provider.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The static route configured on CSC-PE1 is missing the vrf keyword on next-hop
information.
B. The CSC-PE1 does require knowledge of the Layer 3 VPN customer prefixes in order to
allocate and exchange Layer 3 VPN labels with CSC-CE1.
C. A CSC design requires selective label allocation.
D. The CSC-PE1 device is not allocating labels for the CSC backbone carrier route
reflector.
E. The CSC-PE1 and CSC-CE1 routers are not exchanging labeled IPv4 prefixes, which
results in LSP blackholing.
400-201 exam 
Answer: E

Question No : 17 In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Answer: D


Question No : 18  Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 19
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for a customer by using inter-AS MPLS
Option C. It is possible to redistribute ISP1 and ISP2 received loopback addresses into the
local IGP. How many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the ASBRs?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: C

Question No : 20 A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the
TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies
must be compressed. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
400-201 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 21 Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however
it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including
Internet access. Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support
IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Answer: F
Explanation:

Question No : 22
What is the BGP synchronization rule?
A. BGP should not advertise a route until that route has been learned via an IGP.
B. Routing information received through an EBGP session is not forwarding to another
EBGP neighbor, only to IBGP neighbors.
C. BGP neighbor peering are established and synchronized using TCP.
D. BGP should not advertise a route when that route has been learned via an IGP
E. Routing information received through an IBGP session is not forwarding to another IBGP
neighbor, only to EBGP neighbors.
400-201 vce Answer: A

Question No : 23 Two OSPF neighborrouters are stuck in the EXSTART state. After a while, the
neighborship goes down. A network engineer is debugging the issue when both routers
show the OSPF log message “too many retransmissions.” What is the possible root cause?
A. OSPF area mismatch
B. OSPF hello-interval mismatch
C. interface MTU mismatch
D. interface network type mismatch
Answer: C

Question No : 24 A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a
customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
400-201 exam Answer: B

Question No : 25 Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly.
Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the service provider core
network. The IP address space is designed as per following:
Service provide ip address range is: 10.0.0.0/16• All loopback addresses use subnet mask
/32
10.0.0.0/24 range is used for loopback addresses
All other subnet masks used for links are /24 and /25
Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP
functionalities?
A. ip prefix-list Llst1 deny 10.0.0./16 le 20 ge 25
!
mpls Idp label
allocate global prefix-list List1
B. access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 mpls Idp neighbor 10.0.0.1 labels accept 3
C. mpls Idp labelallocate global host-routes
D. mpls Idp password required for 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.1access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.2
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.3
Answer: C

Question No : 26
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs
for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which
solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
400-201 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 27
In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Answer: D

Question No : 28
In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to
traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
400-201 pdf Answer: B,C

Question No : 29
A content provider uses ISP-A and ISP-B for internet transit service for the purpose of
redundancy and load balancing. The content provider has address range assigned to it.
Which two techniques achieve the load balancing and redundancy for inbound traffic?
(Choose Two)
A. Use ISP-A for outbound traffic and ISP-B for inbound traffic.
B. Aggregate all prefixes received from both ISPs into a less-specific prefix.
C. BGP MED attribut
D. Address range split into two more specific prefixes, then advertise one specific prefix per
ISP.
E. BGP AS-prepend technique
F. BGP Local Preference attribute.
Answer: C,E

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the
following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by
the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following
can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the
following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with
additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST
likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to
develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation
in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling
process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration
issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of
192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link
in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks
MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The
business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not
with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of
attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they
work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly
released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they
can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any
reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of
systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack
attempts.
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company.
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown
weaknesses within the code?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be
used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to
play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking
cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their
shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to
restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Updated: Aug 12, 2017
Q&As: 424

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Free Microsoft 70-412 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

1.Which of the following statements is TRUE about filtering in MS Excel?
A. It is a function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.
B. It is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and returns the
value from the specified cell with the found value.
C. It is a feature of Excel to display the records that satisfies a certain condition.
D. It is a feature through which data can be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy.
70-412 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
Filtering is a feature of Excel to display the records, which satisfies a certain condition. Filtered data
displays only the subset of data that meet the criteria that a user specifies and hides data that he
does not want to be displayed. Answer: D is incorrect. Sorting is a feature through which data can
be arranged in a sequential manner to reduce redundancy. Answer: B is incorrect. VLOOKUP
(Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named range and
returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a
function that returns the subtotal in a column of a list.


2.Sam prepares a document. He inserts some tables in it. In one table, Sam wants to combine four
cells into a single cell. What should he do to accomplish the task?
A. Use Banded Columns option.
B. Use Split Cells option.
C. Use Merge Cells option.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 dumps Answer: C
Explanation:
The Merge Cells option is used to combine the selected cells into one cell. Answer: B is incorrect. The
Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into multiple rows and columns. Answer: A is incorrect. The
Banded Columns option is used to display different formatting for the even columns of the table.
Answer: D is incorrect. The Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected
row of the table becomes the first row of the new table.


3.Which of the following tabs will you click on the Word 2007 Ribbon to insert Table of Contents in a
document?
A. Insert B.
Home C.
Review
D. References
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
The References tab handles Table of Contents, footnotes, bibliographies, indexes and similar
material. It also helps to insert a “Table of Authorities”, which is a list of references in a legal
document. Answer: B is incorrect. The Home tab contains the most frequently used Word features,
such as changing fonts and font attributes, customizing paragraphs, using styles, and finding and
replacing the text. Answer: A is incorrect. The Insert tab handles anything that a user wants to insert
into a document, such as tables, pictures, charts, hyperlinks, bookmarks, headers and footers, etc.

Answer: C is incorrect. The Review tab is used to check spelling and grammar, look up a word in a
thesaurus, work in markup mode, review other people’s markups or compare documents.


4.Which of the following is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value?
A. SUBTOTAL
B. PMT()
C. NOW()
D. VLOOKUP
70-412 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
VLOOKUP (Vertical Lookup) is an Excel function that finds a value in the leftmost column of a named
range and returns the value from the specified cell with the found value. Syntax:
VLOOKUP(lookup_value, table_array, col_number, range_lookup) In the given syntax, lookup_value
is the value to be found in the leftmost column of the range. table_array is the range or data table to
be searched. col_number is the number of the column in the range from which the value is to be
returned. range_lookup is a logical argument to find an approximate match in case the specified value
is TRUE or an exact match in case the specified value is FALS E.
Answer: A is incorrect. SUBTOTAL is a function of Excel 2007 to return the subtotal in a column of a
list. Syntax: SUBTOTAL(function_num, ref1, ref2, ref3 ) In the syntax, function_num is the number
1 to 11 (includes hidden values) or 101 to 111 (ignores hidden values) that specifies which
function to use in calculating subtotals within a list. The number for each function is given in the table
below:

ref1, ref2, ref3… are the ranges or references to be included for calculating the subtotal. There can
be a maximum of 254 ranges or references that can be used with the function. Exampl
E. To get the subtotal of a sum of values in the range A2:A9, the following function will be written:
To include values in hidden rows – SUBTOTAL(9, A2:A9) To ignore values in hidden rows –
SUBTOTAL(109, A2:A9) If the range contains any subtotal, the function ignores it to avoid
recounting. The SUBTOTAL function works with columns or vertical ranges only. It does not work
with rows or horizontal ranges. Answer: B is incorrect. A PMT() function is used in Excel to

calculate payments due on a loan, assuming a constant interest rate and constant payments. Syntax:
PMT (Rate, NoOfPayments, PV, FV, Type) Here, Rate is the rate of interest to be
divided by 12 for monthly payments. NoOfPayments is the total number of payment for the loan. PV
is the principal value. FV is the forward value. It is the left over at the end of the payment cycle,
usually left blank. Type is either 0 or 1 indicating whether payments are made at the beginning or at
the end of the month. Usually left blank which indicates 0 (end of month). Answer: C is incorrect. The
NOW() function, in Excel, returns the time when the workbook was last opened. It means, if this
function is used in a workbook, its value will change every time the workbook is opened. The NOW()
function is not updated continuously. The value changes only when the worksheet is calculated or
when a macro that contains the function is run.


5.You work as an Office Assistant for BlueSoft Inc. You are in the process of creating reports in Excel
2007. You need to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Which of the following
shortcut keys will you use to accomplish the task?
A. Ctrl+P
B. Ctrl+N
C. Ctrl+Shift+P
D. Shift+F11
70-412 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
You will press Shift+F11 to insert a new worksheet before the active worksheet. Answer: B is
incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+N will create a new workbook. Answer: A is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+P will
open the Print dialog box. Answer: C is incorrect. Pressing Ctrl+Shift+P will open the “Format Cells”
dialog box.


6.State whether the following statement is true or false. “The AND() function in Excel evaluates
logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are true.”
A. False B.
True
70-412 dumps Answer: B
Explanation:
The AND() function in Excel evaluates logical values and returns the value “True” if all arguments are
true. The function returns “False” if one or all arguments are false. Syntax
AND(LogicalCondition1,LogicalCondition2,..) Here, LogicalCondition1, LogicalCondition2 are test
conditions that can be either TRUE or FALS
E. There can be 1 to 255 logical conditions that can be provided as arguments with the AND()
function. Example The AND() function can also be used to evaluate values in arrays.


7.You work in an office and you are assigned with the task of preparing a document. You insert a
table in the document. You want to divide the table into two tables. What will you do to accomplish
the task?
A. Use Split Cells option.
B. Erase a column.

C. Erase a row.
D. Use Split Table option.
70-412 pdf Answer: D
Explanation:
Split Table option is used to divide a table into two tables. The selected row of the table becomes the
first row of the new table. Answer: A is incorrect. Split Cells option is used to divide a cell into
multiple rows and columns. This option is available in the Layout tab that appears when the cell,
which is to be split, is selected. Answer: C is incorrect. Erasing a row will not divide a table into two
tables. It will only remove the row. Answer: B is incorrect. Erasing a column will not divide a table into
two tables. It will only remove the column.

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Aug 09, 2017
Q&As: 309

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Free Pass4itsure Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities,
targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION: 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented
faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management

C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Answer: B
QUESTION: 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of
service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether
the service is impacted or not
Answer: B
QUESTION: 30
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service
improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate
the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?;
How do we keep the momentum going?

C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes;
Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the
solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we
get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
100-105 vce Answer: D
QUESTION: 31
When can a known error record be raised?
1. At any time it would be useful to do so
2. After a workaround has been found
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. Both of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change
management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?
A. The change authorization board
B. The change advisory board
C. The change implementer
D. The change manager
100-105 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 33
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether
services have met their targets?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Change management
C. Service level management

D. Availability management
Answer: C
QUESTION: 34
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?
A. The value of a service
B. Governance
C. Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)
100-105 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?
A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group
Answer: B
QUESTION: 36
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?
A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B. Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset
100-105 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION: 37
Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metrics
B. Service design package
C. Service portfolio design
D. Process definitions
Answer: B
QUESTION: 38
What should a service always deliver to customers?
A. Applications
B. Infrastructure
C. Value
D. Resources
100-105 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 39
Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service asset and configuration management
C. Change management
D. Information security management
Answer: D
QUESTION: 40
Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the
following?
A. IT services and components
B. IT services and business processes
C. Components and business processes
D. IT services, components and business processes

100-105 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 41
What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the
infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?
A. Configuration baseline
B. Project baseline
C. Change baseline
D. Asset baseline
Answer: A
QUESTION: 42
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?
A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of services
C. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them
100-105 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 43
Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?
1. ITIL is vendor neutral
2. It does not prescribe actions
3. ITIL represents best practice
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
QUESTION: 44
Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?
A. The Deming Cycle
B. The continual service improvement approach
C. The seven-step improvement process
D. The service lifecycle
100-105 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service
lifecycle?
A. Continual service improvement
B. Service strategy
C. Service design
D. Service transition
Answer: B
QUESTION: 46
Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general
enquiries from users?
A. Service level management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Request fulfilment
D. Demand management
100-105 vce Answer: C

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