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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION NO: 43
Which characteristic differentiates an IP storage adapter from a traditional network interface card (NIC)?
A. 2 Gbps data rate
B. TCP/IP offload engine (TOE)
C. jumbo frames
D. link aggregation
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link
B. Fabric Lane
C. Fabric Long
D. Fabric Loop
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN
B. E ports
C. Name Server
D. Logical Units
70-698 dump 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
A company needs to backup its data without application interruption. Cost and application performance are both important. The data Can be backed up at night when the applications an intensive. What must be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape
B. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to the tape.
C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back tue snapshot up to the tape
D. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
What is the maximum porntecial bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 4 Gb SAN?
A. 400 Mbps
B. 400 MBps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 800 MBps
70-698 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server
B. rename the Zone Server
C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch
D. create and activate required zone set on the switch
70-698 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM
B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM
C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters
D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN
B. NAS
C. CAS
D. DAS
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday’s process backed up all changes since
Sunday’s backup. Tuesday’s process backed up all changes since Sunday’s backup including changed on Monday.
What type of backup is this?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Clone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk to disk (D2D) backup solutions?
A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library.
B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes
C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL
D. Disk array works as a “temporary cache” for the backup software
70-698 dump 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three times already?
A. latest full must be restored
B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored
C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored
D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 55
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel
B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel
C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit
D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit
70-698 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
Which statement describes the “cylinder” in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved
B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media
C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located’
D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 57
Which method protects data bu maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk
B. mirroring
C. parity RAID
D. NDMP
70-698 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 58
Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy.
B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy
C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks
D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI
B. the network connection is on a dedicated network
C. they are using a software initiator
D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA
70-698 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
70-698 dump
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop
B. Node Link
C. Node Long
D. Node LISM
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 810-403
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

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Question: 34
As an HR Professional you must recognize and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affect your performance as an HR Professional. What term describes the illegal agreement of the management to give an individual a job, as long as the person does not join or be involved with a labor union?
A. Yellow dog contract
B. Scab
C. Shill contract
D. Non-union agreement
810-403 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A yellow dog contract is an agreement between management and an individual that gives a person a job as long as the person does not join a union. The Norris-LaGuardia Act prohibited federal courts from enforcing yellow dog contracts. Answer option B is incorrect. A scab is a derogatory term assigned to a person who will cross a picket line to work for an organization experiencing a strike by workers. Answer option C is incorrect. A shill contract is not a valid term. Answer option D is incorrect. A non-union agreement is not a valid term for this scenario.

Question: 35
Which one of the following presents the seven stages of internal consulting in the correct order?
A. Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
B. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
C. Gathering agreement to the project plan, Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
D. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
810-403 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The seven stages of internal consulting are as follows:
1.Exploring the situation
2.Gathering agreement to the project plan
3.Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings
4.Developing recommendations
5.Presenting the findings and recommendations
6.Implementing
7.Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option A is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting.

Question: 36
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages or benefits, to men and women who perform substantially equal work for the same employer, in the same establishment, and under similar working conditions. The law defined substantial equality of job content on four factors. Which one of the following is not one of the four factors this law defines?
A. Effort
B. Working conditions
C. Skill
D. Education
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 defines the substantial equality of job contents based on skills, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Skill, effort, and working conditions are defined as part of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Question: 37
Which of the following is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Employee self-assessment
C. Performance management
D. Supervisory training
810-403 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance management is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively. Performance management includes activities to ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
Answer option D is incorrect. Supervisory training generally involves topics related to interactions with employees, such as performance management, progressive discipline, performance appraisals, workplace safety, and training.
 Answer option A is incorrect. Performance appraisal is a structure for documenting individual performance. Performance appraisal can contribute to productive relationships between employees and their supervisors. Answer option B is incorrect. Employee self-assessment process is meant to be a two-way conversation. In this process, employees are asked to assess their own performance as part of the appraisal.
Question: 38
Which of the following are established by Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees
B. Minimum wage requirement
C. Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
D. Health insurance requirement
Answer: B, C, and A
Explanation:
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 established the following:
Minimum wage requirement Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees Answer option D is incorrect. Health insurance requirement are not established by FLSA.
Question: 39
You are completing a Form I-9 with a newly hired employee. Which one of the following documents is not allowed as a proof of identity and employment eligibility for the newly hired employee?
A. Driver’s license
B. Expired US passport
C. Certificate of naturalization
D. Unexpired reentry permit
810-403 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
A driver’s license is a document that is acceptable to establish identity, but it is not acceptable as a document that confirms eligibility of employment. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An expired US passport, certificate of naturalization, and unexpired reentry permit are legitimate documents for the proof of employment eligibility and for identity.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 129:
STPs connect to ________ over A links.
A. The 800 database
B. Calling name data bases
C. Each other
D. Switches
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 130:
Common channel signal packets are exchanged using:
A. Routers.
B. Bridges.
C. STPs.
D. Switching processors.
Answer: C
QUESTION 131:
The national architecture that uses SS7 to provide services such as calling name
display is called the:
A. Integrated Services Digital Network.
B. Superior Signaling Network.
C. Advanced Intelligent Network.
D. National Advanced Information Infrastructure.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 132:
The terminating switch sends a query to a database asking for a subscriber name
using:
A. Advanced MF signaling.
B. ISDN Q.931 signaling.

C. SS7 messaging.
D. AIN address signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
The process of connecting one input to another for a period of time is:
A. Switching.
B. Transmission.
C. Bridging.
D. Routing.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 134:
The three basic functions of switches are concentration, _______ and expansion
A. Transmission
B. Signaling
C. Addressing
D. Distribution
Answer: D
QUESTION 135:
OAM&P capabilities include translations, testing, provisioning, and one other very
important function called:
A. Switching.
B. Billing.
C. Conversion.
D. Detection.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 136:
Step by step switches operated on:
A. Touchtone signals.
B. A single digit at each switch.
C. 110 volts AC power.

D. A millisecond switching cycle.
Answer: B
QUESTION 137:
The switches in a crossbar type switching system are at the intersection of:
A. Vertical and horizontal bars.
B. Streets and avenues.
C. Vertical and horizontal transistors.
D. Up and down magnets.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 138:
Time division switching stages are a characteristic of:
A. Analog stored program control switches.
B. Digital stored program control switches.
C. Signal transfer points.
D. Crossbar switching systems.
Answer: B
QUESTION 139:
DS0s within a DS1 or higher are switched in a:
A. Add-drop multiplexer.
B. Space-division switch.
C. Time-division multiplexed switch.
D. Crossbar switch.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 140:
The basic components of the time division switch are control logic, a buffer and:
A. Crosspoint switch.
B. Time-slot counter.
C. Memory.
D. Input/output.

Answer: B
QUESTION 141:
A space-division stage:
A. Uses a crosspoint switch.
B. Uses a buffer memory.
C. Switches time slots within a DS1.
D. Is not used in a digital switch.
210-260 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 142:
A digital switch is made up of the network fabric and:
A. Signaling processor.
B. Signal transfer point.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Control.
Answer: A
QUESTION 143:
Time-division switches and __________ make up the switching fabric of a digital
switch.
A. Signaling processors
B. Crossbar switches
C. Control processors
D. Space-division switches
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 144:
Optical switching are not currently used because:
A. Crossbar systems are less expensive.
B. Optical switches lack required OAM&P features.
C. Optical switching methodologies are still experimental.
D. Of difficulties in conversion between electrical and optical signals.

Answer: C
QUESTION 145:
Important considerations in justifying deployment of new telecommunications
technology include ________, revenue enhancement, security and regulation.
A. ITU standard migration
B. Teleconferencing
C. Cost reduction
D. Internet telephony
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Consideration of multiple styles of people interacting via telecommunications should
result in:
A. An increase in the software content of the solution.
B. Multiple solutions to identified needs.
C. Discarding solutions which serve a small percentage of customers.
D. More versatile call centers with Internet connectivity.
Answer: D
QUESTION 147:
You have business continuity as a means of improving security in the CO. What is
the second concern you should address?
A. Employee education
B. Reporting processes
C. Intrusion detection
D. Hackers
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 148:
You have identified intrusion detection as a means of improving security. What is
the second concern in regards to telephony?
A. Identifying threats
B. Identifying common attacks on the CO

C. Identifying common vulnerabilities in systems
D. Identifying business continuity concerns
Answer: D
QUESTION 149:
What does a traffic table enable you to do?
A. Determine the number of necessary lines.
B. Determine the number of customers served.
C. Determine the number of available lines.
D. Determine the number of connections made over a period of time.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 150:
Which of the following helps you determine the number of necessary lines?
A. A line matrix
B. Service criteria
C. A traffic table
D. A connectivity map
Answer: C
QUESTION 151:
Erlang B extended is used when:
A. Blocked calls are queued.
B. Blocked calls are denied.
C. Blocked calls result in customer retries.
D. Blocked calls go to a “call back later” announcement.
210-260 vce Answer:
QUESTION 152:
What type of signal is exchanged between computer networks?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Network
D. Stand-alone

Answer: A
QUESTION 153:
What is the most common transmission type for low-speed data communications?
A. Encoded digital
B. Encoded analog
C. Unencoded digital
D. Unencoded analog
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 154:
What kind of equipment are modems and CSU/DSUs?
A. Hosts
B. Terminals
C. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. Data communications equipment (DCE)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: JN0-102
Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate, Junos(JNCIA-Junos)
Q&As: 395

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Free Juniper JN0-102 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about optical networks? (Choose two.)
A. SONET and SDH both use time-division multiplexing.
B. An optical transport network system uses time-division multiplexing.
C. SONET and SDH both use wavelength-division multiplexing.
D. An optical transport network system uses wavelength-division multiplexing.
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
What is the last usable IP address in the 218.6.0.0/17 network?
A. 218.6.125.254
B. 218.6.126.254
C. 218.6.127.254
D. 218.6.128.254
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the PFE?
A. The PFE controls the RE by providing Layer 2 and Layer 3 forwarding tables.
B. The PFE implements advanced services such as policing, stateless firewall filtering, and class of service.
C. The PFE sends traffic to the RE for systematic packet forwarding.
D. The PFE receives hardware and environmental status messages from the RE.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement is correct regarding exception traffic processing?
A. Exception traffic is only handled by the PFE.
B. Exception traffic is rate-limited across the internal link to protect the RE.
C. Exception traffic is not prioritized during times of congestion.
D. Exception traffic is forwarded based on forwarding table entries.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You are asked to change the cable on interface fe-4/2/3.
Which statement is correct?
A. The cable is found on port 4, FPC 2, and slot 3.
B. The cable is found on slot 2, port 3, and FPC 4.
C. The cable is found on FPC 4, slot 3, and port 2.
D. The cable is found on slot 2, FPC 3, and port 4.
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You must apply the family inet configuration parameter only to Gigabit Ethernet interfaces that are in FPC  Which output applies to this configuration?
A. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
B. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
C. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<*-2/*/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
D. [edit groups]
[email protected]# show
ge-int {
interfaces {
<ge-2/*> {
unit 0 {
familyinet;
}}}}
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You receive an alarm that your Junos device is experiencing problems regarding temperature. Which two commands would you use to investigate this problem? (Choose two.)
A. show chassis hardware
B. show chassis temperature-thresholds
C. show chassis pic fpc-slot <value> pic-slot <value>
D. show chassis environment
Correct Answer: BD
JN0-102 vce QUESTION 8
Which command displays the egress interfaces selected on the PFE for destination prefixes?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show route table
C. show route table extensive
D. show pfefwdd
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
— Exhibit —
[edit policy-options]
[email protected]# show
policy-statement block-routes {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer;
}
then reject;
}
term 2 {
then accept;
}}
— Exhibit —
You are asked to ensure that your device does not accept any prefixes within the 172.27.0.0/24 network.
You have applied the policy shown in the exhibit, but the 172.27.0.0/24 route is still present on your device.
Which configuration will resolve this problem?
A. [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
B. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
C. [email protected]# set term 1 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 upto /30 [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
D. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 longer [edit policy-options policy-statement block-routes]
E. [email protected]# set term 2 from route-filter 172.27.0.0/24 orlonger
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which command will display the contents of the forwarding table?
A. show route forwarding-table
B. show forwarding
C. show configuration
D. show interfaces
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?
A. The forwarding plane is the intelligence of the platform.
B. The forwarding plane is based on an X86 architecture.
C. The forwarding plane maintains the routing tables, bridging table, and primary forwarding table.
D. The forwarding plane implements policers, stateless firewall filters, and class of service.
JN0-102 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
You want to log in to the router and make a configuration change.
After logging in as the root user, what is the next command you must enter?
A. enable
B. configure
C. edit
D. cli
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What must be configured prior to the first commit after factory defaults are loaded?
A. root authentication
B. default gateway
C. host name
D. management services
JN0-102 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which two login-class permissions could permit a user to view the system hierarchy of the active
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. system permission
B. view-configuration permission
C. network permission
D. super-user permission
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 15
Which command displays the amount of space available on the storage media?
A. show chassis routing-engine
B. show system file-storage
C. file list
D. show system storage
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which three steps are part of the root password recovery process? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Run the recovery script.
C. Reset the root password.
D. Reset the user passwords.
E. Load factory-default configuration.
JN0-102 vce Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 17
Which command will display only direct routes?
A. show route
B. show route inet.0 direct
C. show ip route direct
D. show route protocol direct
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
You have been asked to configure your MX240 with a default route toward your upstream ISP at IP address 192.168.100.1.
Which command successfully completes this task?
A. [email protected]# set routing-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
B. [email protected]# set routing-options default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
C. [email protected]# set forwarding-options static route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
D. [email protected]# set protocols default route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.100.1
JN0-102 exam Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
1.If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B
3.Exhibit.

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
300-135 dumps Answer: AD
4.You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
 new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B
5.Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
300-135 pdf Answer: D
6.Exhibit.

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C
7.What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
300-135 vce Answer: CD
8.Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C
9.You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
300-135 exam Answer: B
10.You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set D.
only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

11.You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference C.
apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity D.
apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
300-135 dumps Answer: A

12.Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B
13.You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
300-135 pdf Answer: C
14.Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve C.
Difference D.
Color Burn
Answer: A
15.When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers. D.
It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
300-135 vce Answer: D

16.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
17.Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
300-135 exam Correct:B C D
18.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
19.Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
300-135 dumps Correct:B
20.Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Q&As: 102

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Free Microsoft 70-775 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 29
What action would destroy all association links for an object in one operation?
A. DestroyLinkAction
B. DestroyObjectAction
C. ClearAssociationAction
D. ClearStructuralFeatureAction
E. RemoveStructuralFeatureAction
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. Behaviors can be executed.
B. The classifier cannot be abstract.
C. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
D. State machine transitions can be triggered.
E. The classifier cannot be an association class.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?
A. SetVariableAction
B. ClearVariableAction
C. ReadVariableAction
D. AddVariableValueAction
E. RemoveVariableValueAction
70-775 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes
Answer: F
QUESTION: 33
What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node
70-775 pdf Answer: E
QUESTION: 34
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
What does an activity partition contain? (Choose two)
A. nodes
B. edges
C. states
D. classes
E. lifelines
F. messages
70-775 vce Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 36
How many arrows can connect to a partition?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows will be
given values?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control values are
provided to the outgoing arrow?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
If a central buffer has one value and three outgoing arrows go to three actions, how many of the
actions will receive the value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41
What elements can have variables in activity diagrams?
A. actions
B. activities
C. partitions
D. structured nodes
E. structured edges
70-775 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
What determines whether a clause executes?
A. guards
B. classes
C. behaviors
D. test nodes
E. parameters
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
In the exhibit, what is true about the diagram MOpt?

A. All traces of MOpt include message p.
B. All traces of MOpt include message q.
C. Receiving p will come before sending q.
D. No traces of MOpt include both messages p and q.
70-775 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 44
In the exhibit, what is true about Mpar?

A. Every trace contains all three messages.
B. Sending p must always precede sending q.
C. Receiving p must always precede receiving q.
D. There are legal traces that do not contain message q.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
In the exhibit, what is true about Mstrict?

A. The whole Mstrict has only one legal trace.
B. Sending r precedes sending p in all legal traces.
C. Sending q precedes reception of r in all legal traces.
D. Within the strict combined fragment, sending a signal will immediately be followed by the
reception of that signal.
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
What does it mean when message m is ignored in a combined fragment?
A. If m happens, the system should abort.
B. Nothing happens within the fragment until m appears.
C. Message m appears only in illegal traces of the fragment.
D. One or more m messages may appear at any point within the fragment.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are valid?
(Choose three)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
E. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
70-775 dumps Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 48
In the exhibit, what are the valid traces for Cont1?

A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages
Answer: B
QUESTION: 49
What is the notation for gates?
A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
C. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name
70-775 pdf Answer: B

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Exam Code: LX0-103
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 1
Q&As: 120

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QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using LX0-103 dumps SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to
perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to
rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take
effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based
package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time
that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 19, 2017
Q&As: 453

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Free Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching? A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations,
priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.
200-310 pdf Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 11
Your Help Desk is 24×7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming
snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. AverageAfter Call Work Time
200-310 vce Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive
work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement?
(Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
200-310 exam Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 15
Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that
service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on a decrease in
customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. Systemare more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
200-310 dumps Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 18
You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication?
(Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
200-310 pdf Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 300-160
Exam Name: DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 360

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300-160 dumps

Free Cisco 300-160 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION NO: 1. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.
What is the transmitted data rate for this frame?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 5.5 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
300-160 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2. Choose all that apply. Which techniques are used by moving devices to reserve air time?
A. Virtual Carrier Sense
B. Contention-Free
C. Power Save
D. RTS, CTS frames
Answer: AD
QUESTION NO: 3. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.

How is this frame being delivered?
A. From the mobile unit to the Access Point
B. From the Access Point to the mobile unit
C. From the mobile unit to another mobile unit in ad hoc mode
D. From a wired station to the Access Point
300-160 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed. Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUNAon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to
upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider. Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C 300-160 pdf first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems 300-160 vce is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.

During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener.The 300-160 exam cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment.
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom
monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
300-160 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3). Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment. Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud
Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests. Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss. The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
300-160 exam Answer: B

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[Free New Updation] Share 2017 Newest Cisco CCIE 400-201 Dumps Written Exam Version 4.0 Video Study With Accurate Answers

Pass4itsure share 2017 newest Cisco CCIE 400-201 dumps written exam video study with accurate answers, pass CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version. The perfect Cisco 400-201 dumps from Pass4itsure are conducted to make well preparation for your exam and get the desired result. Free Download Cisco https://www.pass4itsure.com/400-201.html dumps available before purchase, you can download 400-201 dumps free and try it.

Exam Code: 400-201
Exam Name: CCIE Service Provider Written Exam Version 4.0
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 451

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Free Cisco 400-201 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question No : 16  Refer to the exhibit.400-201 dumps

An engineer is troubleshooting CSC-PE and CSC-CE configurations and finds that there is
a missing communication between Layer 3 VPN customer sites that are connected to
customer carrier provider.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The static route configured on CSC-PE1 is missing the vrf keyword on next-hop
information.
B. The CSC-PE1 does require knowledge of the Layer 3 VPN customer prefixes in order to
allocate and exchange Layer 3 VPN labels with CSC-CE1.
C. A CSC design requires selective label allocation.
D. The CSC-PE1 device is not allocating labels for the CSC backbone carrier route
reflector.
E. The CSC-PE1 and CSC-CE1 routers are not exchanging labeled IPv4 prefixes, which
results in LSP blackholing.
400-201 exam 
Answer: E

Question No : 17 In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Answer: D


Question No : 18  Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

Question No : 19
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
MPLS VPN service has been provisioned for a customer by using inter-AS MPLS
Option C. It is possible to redistribute ISP1 and ISP2 received loopback addresses into the
local IGP. How many labels are associated with packet forwarding between the ASBRs?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: C

Question No : 20 A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the
TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies
must be compressed. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
400-201 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 21 Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however
it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including
Internet access. Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support
IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Answer: F
Explanation:

Question No : 22
What is the BGP synchronization rule?
A. BGP should not advertise a route until that route has been learned via an IGP.
B. Routing information received through an EBGP session is not forwarding to another
EBGP neighbor, only to IBGP neighbors.
C. BGP neighbor peering are established and synchronized using TCP.
D. BGP should not advertise a route when that route has been learned via an IGP
E. Routing information received through an IBGP session is not forwarding to another IBGP
neighbor, only to EBGP neighbors.
400-201 vce Answer: A

Question No : 23 Two OSPF neighborrouters are stuck in the EXSTART state. After a while, the
neighborship goes down. A network engineer is debugging the issue when both routers
show the OSPF log message “too many retransmissions.” What is the possible root cause?
A. OSPF area mismatch
B. OSPF hello-interval mismatch
C. interface MTU mismatch
D. interface network type mismatch
Answer: C

Question No : 24 A Service Provider wants to extend MPLS WAN endpoints in the cloud at the edge of a
customer network within the cloud. Which platform will meet this requirement?
A. Cisco NX-OS
B. Cisco CSR1000v
C. Cisco ISR Routers running IOS
D. Cisco CRS-1
E. Cisco ASR Routers running IOS-XR
400-201 exam Answer: B

Question No : 25 Due to recent acquisitions, a company’s MPLS infrastructure is growing very quickly.
Concerns arise about labeling each and every IP address on the service provider core
network. The IP address space is designed as per following:
Service provide ip address range is: 10.0.0.0/16• All loopback addresses use subnet mask
/32
10.0.0.0/24 range is used for loopback addresses
All other subnet masks used for links are /24 and /25
Which command would significantly reduce the label allocations without compromising LDP
functionalities?
A. ip prefix-list Llst1 deny 10.0.0./16 le 20 ge 25
!
mpls Idp label
allocate global prefix-list List1
B. access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 mpls Idp neighbor 10.0.0.1 labels accept 3
C. mpls Idp labelallocate global host-routes
D. mpls Idp password required for 10
!
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.1access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.2
access-list 10 permit 10.0.0.3
Answer: C

Question No : 26
A service provider engineering team must design a solution that supports end-to-end LSPs
for multiple IGP domains within different AS numbers. According to RFC 3108, which
solution achieves this goal?
A. LDP and BGP
B. BGP and send-label
C. RSVP and IS-IS or OSPF
D. RSVP and BGP
E. mLDP4
400-201 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 27
In a virtualization concept, which is one of the characteristic of the HVR solution?
A. introduces significant contention of resources
B. implements shared control plane resources
C. implements dedicated chassis resources
D. implements dedicated data plane resources
Answer: D

Question No : 28
In MPLS-enabled network, which two improvements does EVPN provide compared to
traditional VPLS?
A. Use of LDP to allocate EVPN-related labels
B. Per flow load balancing
C. Optimized learning and flooding process
D. Leveraging of enhanced VFIs to provide greater scalability
E. No need for exchange of MAC reachability between PEs
F. Use of BGP as a control-plane protocol
400-201 pdf Answer: B,C

Question No : 29
A content provider uses ISP-A and ISP-B for internet transit service for the purpose of
redundancy and load balancing. The content provider has address range assigned to it.
Which two techniques achieve the load balancing and redundancy for inbound traffic?
(Choose Two)
A. Use ISP-A for outbound traffic and ISP-B for inbound traffic.
B. Aggregate all prefixes received from both ISPs into a less-specific prefix.
C. BGP MED attribut
D. Address range split into two more specific prefixes, then advertise one specific prefix per
ISP.
E. BGP AS-prepend technique
F. BGP Local Preference attribute.
Answer: C,E

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