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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?
A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B. It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C. It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D. It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E. It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F. It supports non-IP protocols.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
QUESTION 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
QUESTION 8 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But you don’t have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time. # echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤ when System Reboot on next time, etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file /etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter. net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
QUESTION 10 CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it’s giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window System.

300-209 exam Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)./tmp is full ornotQuota is already reachedVideo card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary filequota username ¨¤ if quota is alread reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤ you can pass the
Kernel Argument from boot loader.Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card, resolution etc.Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network’s Host?
300-209 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254 OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
QUESTION 12 CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

12. mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 13 CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from allservers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from otherhost configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS=”-m 0 -r” Where
-m 0 disables ‘MARK’ messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
QUESTION 14 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:Boot the System on Single user mode.Change the passwordCheck the account expire date by using chage -l root command. If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 15 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤ What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
QUESTION 16  Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 20 CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 21 CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question No : 9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
400-251 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client

B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
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Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
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A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION NO: 17
On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User’s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
400-251 exam Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Cascade product runs under Riverbed Service Platform (RSP)?
A.
Sensor-VE
B.Gateway-VE
C.
Express RSP
D.
Pilot
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
From Cascade Pilot, reports may include:
A. One or all views from the main workspace.
B. Notes entered associated with a view.
C. Analyst and Client information entered.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question No : 21 To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)
A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts
400-251 pdf 
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 22 What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?
A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 23  Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)
A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company
400-251 vce 
Answer: A,B
Question No : 24 Where do you define the mandatory attributes for a vendor?
A. Organizational plan
B. Vendor group
C. Product category
D. Business partner (vendor)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26  What is used for downloading product categories from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. CRM Middleware
B. ALE Distribution
C. Transaction COMM_HIERARCHY
D. Transaction BBPGETVD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27 What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP.
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 28  What do you activate to enable the administrator troubleshooting issues related to SRM objects (for example, shopping carts, purchase orders)?
A. Business transaction event (BTE)
B. Administrator console
C. Objects for synchronization
D. Application monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 29  Requisitions were transferred from ECC 6.0 EhP04 to SRM 7.0 using SOA, but are missing from the sourcing work list. Which transaction in SRM can you use to troubleshoot this
problem?
A. SLG1
B. WE05
C. SXMB_MONI
D. BD87
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30  Your customer would like to use vendor and purchasing organization to determine the backend system for follow-on documents. What is a valid solution for this requirement?
A. This is not possible in the standard system and requires a modification.
B. Since SAP SRM 7.0 you can define this on the function tab of the purchasing
organization within the organizational plan.
C. Maintain the customizing table Define Backend Systems respectively.
D. Use the respective Business Add-In (BAdI) and implement a specific coding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 31 During testing you discover that a confirmation created in SAP SRM did not generate a goods receipt posting in SAP ERP as expected.
Which transaction could be used to troubleshoot this problem?
A. BBP_BW_SC2
B. SXMB_MONI
C. SMQ2
D. WE05
QUESTION NO: 32
Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select “Apply with Filter”.
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
400-251 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
400-251 dumps Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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QUESTION 69
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models that use Monte Carlo processes?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. They may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo simulation is often used in computer modeling to generate the individual values for a random variable. The performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each variable in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. Because Monte Carlo processes use the laws of probability to generate values for random variables, simulations using them are probabilistic, not deterministic.
QUESTION 70
The sales manager for a builder of custom yachts developed the following conditional table for annual production and sales: According to the table, how many yachts should be built?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To achieve the maximum expected profit. 30 yachts should be built. For each level of production, multiply the probability of demand by the expected profit. The computation for the maximum is: 0.1 (- US $10) + 0.2($10) + 0.5($30) + 0.2($30) = US $22.
QUESTION 71
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US$1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If both firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultant price war will cause both firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is
inevitable when reduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. This is classified as a no-win strategy.

QUESTION 72
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the:
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximinrule.
D. Maximaxrule.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses the decision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by risk-averse players, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equal gain.
QUESTION 73
Your company (Company Y) has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is aware that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this problem as a:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game; if it is possible for both players to profit, the game is a positive- sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffs for each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and Y chooses limited advertising, X’s payoff is -1 and Ys is 1.
QUESTION 74
If the bank uses the maximax criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
70-742 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk-seeking, optimistic decision makers employ the maximax criterion. It is the strategy with the highest potential payoff, regardless of the state of nature. In this case, it is location L5 (US $29). ”
QUESTION 75
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch. it will select:
A. LI
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes the maximum regret (opportunity cost). The maximum regret for each location is determined from the opportunity loss matrix.
QUESTION 76
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If, in addition to the estimated profits .management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3.0.4, and 0.3, respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location L4?
A. US$5.50
B. US$7.90
C. US$7.50
D. US$5.00
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First, the opportunity loss matrix must be prepared
QUESTION 77
During the past few years, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of US $800. For US $1,000 per month, Wilder can lease a generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings (or additional expense) for the year will be
A. US $(15,200)
B. US $(1,267)
C. US$3,200
D. US$7,200
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this expense can be avoided by paying US $1,000 per month (US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the
probability distribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages per month.
3/12×0 = 0.0
2/12×1 = 0.16667
4/12×2 = 0.66667

3/12×3 =0.75000
1.58334
The company can expect to have, on average. 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 per outage, the expected cost is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1.000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.

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Question: 1
DRAG DROP
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server with one project collection and multiple build machines. A development team installs and configures a build service on a new build machine. You need to be able to validate that the installation and configuration meets your organization’s requirements and follows its best practices. At which service would you perform the following tasks? (To answer, drag the appropriate build component to the correct standards- checking task in the answer area. Each build component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

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Question: 2
You are planning to install a new Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You need to ensure that the minimum supported version of Microsoft SQL Server is installed. Which version should you install?
A. SQL Server 2005
B. SQL Server 2008 32-bit
C. SQL Server 2008 64-bit
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. SQL Server 2012
070-496 exam Answer: D
Question: 3
To support your development team’s upgrade from Visual Studio 2010 to Visual Studio 2012, you also upgrade from Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2010 to TFS 2012. You need to provide a TFS 2012 test environment that:
• Includes data and source code from your existing TFS 2010 environment and

• Allows your developers to test the new TFS 2012 and Visual Studio 2012 features while keeping the current TFS 2010 environment intact. What should you do?
A. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same server as TFS 2010. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
B. Install TFS 2012 on a new server. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
C. Clone the existing TFS 2010 environment (including the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services) on new servers and update the internal IDs. Upgrade the cloned environment to TFS 2012.
D. Copy the existing TFS 2010 database, SharePoint, and SQL Server Reporting services to a new set of servers. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same hardware as TFS 2010, and point TFS 2012 to the new servers.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and a virtual test environment that uses Lab Management 2012 along with System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) 2010. You want to install a test virtual machine that is hosted within a lab environment. You need to ensure that the test virtual machine can support all the features of Lab Management 2012. Which component should you install on the test virtual machine?
A. Agents for Visual Studio 2012
B. Visual Studio Build Agent 2012
C. Visual Studio Test Agent 2012
D. Visual Studio Lab Agent 2012
070-496 dumps Answer: A
Question: 5
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server named TFS1. SharePoint and Reporting Services components are also installed and configured for TFS on the same server. You need to be able to access the SharePoint Project Portal from the TFS server by using the following URL: http://tfs.fabrikam.com. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL.
B. From Visual Studio Team Explorer, edit the portal settings.
C. Run the TFSC0nfIg.exe SharePointportal command.
D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, configure the Alternate Access Mappings.
Answer: D
Question: 6
Your network environment includes a Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 named TFS1 that contains two project collections named PC1 and PC2. A build server named Bi is configured with a build controller named C1 and an agent named A1 that runs build definitions created in Pd. A development team wants to create a gated check-in build definition on PC2. You need to perform a supported infrastructure enhancement to run PC2 build definitions. What should you do?
A.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, migrate controller C1 and install a new controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
B.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, install a build controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the B2 build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
C.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, update the Al agent to use controllers C1 and C2.
D.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
070-496 pdf Answer: B
Question: 7
Your network environment is configured according to the following table:
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Your TFS environment is configured with the following URLs:
• TFS: http://tfssrv:8080/tfs
• Reporting: http://tfssrv/reports
• SharePoint: http://tfssrv/sites
You need to configure only the TFS URL to be the following fully qualified domain name (FQDN): http://tfs.contoso.com. You log on to the application-tier server. What should you do next?

A. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the host name with the friendly name.
B. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Notification URL text box.
C. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the server URL with the friendly name.
D. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Server URL text box.
Answer: B

 

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Q&As: 234

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QUESTION: 82
Which Decision rule type is best used to display nested “if” statements? (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
70-411 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 83
What happens if none of the rows in a Decision Table evaluate to True? (Choose One)
A. The table does not return a result value
B. The table’s next-highest ancestor is evaluated
C. The table returns a default ‘otherwise’ value
D. The system cycles through the table again to check for errors
Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
A requirement specification states that if a test score is between 91 and 100, assign the grade A; 81 – 90, assign a B; 71 – 80, assign a C. Which two rule types are appropriate for this requirement? (Choose Two)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. When Condition
D. Flow Action
70-411 dumps Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 85
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 86
(True or False) Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
70-411 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 87
(True or False) Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single cell in a Decision Table rule using multiple OR conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 88
Which rule type is not classified as a decision rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. Map Value
D. When
E. Declare Expressions
70-411 vce Answer: E
QUESTION: 89
Which of the following is not associated with the Decision shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision table
B. Map value
C. When rule
D. Decision tree
Answer: C
QUESTION: 90
(True or False) When PRPC evaluates a decision tree, if the entire tree is processed without returning a true result, the Otherwise value is returned.
A. True
B. False
70-411 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 91
(True or False) A When rule can be used to conditionally allow a user to perform an
action.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 92
Select the answer that best describes how PRPC executes a decision tree. (Choose One)
A. PRPC evaluates the if portion of the array
B. PRPC continues until it reaches a Return statement
C. PRPC returns the Otherwise value if the entire tree is processed without encountering a Return statement
D. PRPC performs all of the above actions when evaluating a decision tree

70-411 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 93
A When rule is referenced by which flow shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Fork
C. Connector
D. Assignment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 94
A Decision shape in a flow can represent either a decision or a fork. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a decision and a fork? (Choose One)
A. There is no difference; a decision and a fork are interchangeable
B. A decision requires an Else connector, but a fork does not
C. A fork references a Boolean expression; a decision does not
D. A decision references a rule; a fork does not
70-411 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 96
(True or False) When a Section rule is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must also be opened and saved.

A. True
B. False
70-411 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 97
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value. On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field be set? (Choose One)
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition
D. Always
Answer: C
QUESTION: 98
What are three rule types that can be identified by using the Rules Inspector? (Choose Three)
A. Property
B. Data Transform
C. Constraints
D. Section
E. Harness
70-411 exam Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 99
The term Dynamic Select refers to . (Choose One)
A. the process used during Rule Resolution
B. a PRPC decision rule
C. a UI control that displays a drop-down list with dynamically-generated values
D. the process used to generate an end user’s RuleSet list
Answer: C

QUESTION 100
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F’xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. “‘s^ ‘s nc* ‘elated to price
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined
QUESTION 101
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 102
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.

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Q&As: 427

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Free Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 200 desktop computers that run Windows Vista Service Pack 2(SP2). All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1 to OU1. You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to computers that run Windows 8. What should you do?
A. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
B. Create and link a WMI filter to GPO1.
C. Run the Set-GPInheritancecmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
D. Run the Set-GPLinkcmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WMI Filtering is used to get information of the system and apply the GPO on it with the condition is met.Security filtering: apply a GPO to a specific group (members of the group)
QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-417 dumps

You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1. What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You make a change to GPO1. You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which tool should you use?
A. TheSecedit command
B. The Invoke-GpUpdatecmdlet
C. Group Policy Object Editor
D. Server Manager
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains an Edge Server named Server1. Server1 is configured as a DirectAccess server. Server1 has the following settings: Internal DNS name: Server1.contoso.com External DNS name: dal.contoso.com Internal IPv6 address: 2002:cla8:6a:3333::l External IPv4 address: 65.55.37.62
Your company uses split-brain DNS for the contoso.com zone. You run the Remote Access Setup wizard as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

You need to ensure that client computers on the Internet can establish DirectAccess connections to Server1. Which additional name suffix entry should you add from the Remote Access Setup wizard?
A. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
B. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
C. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
D. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
70-417 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* In a non-split-brain DNS environment, the Internet namespace is different from the intranet namespace. For example, the Contoso Corporation uses contoso.com on the Internet and corp.contoso.com on the intranet. Because all intranet resources use the corp.contoso.com DNS suffix, the NRPT rule for corp.contoso.com routes all DNS name queries for intranet resources to intranet DNS servers. DNS name queries for names with the contoso.com suffix do not match the corp.contoso.com intranet namespace rule
in the NRPT and are sent to Internet DNS servers.
* Split-brain DNS is a configuration method that enables proper resolution of names (e.g., example.com) from both inside and outside of your local network. Note: For split-brain DNS deployments, you must list the FQDNs that are duplicated on the Internet and intranet and decide which resources the DirectAccess client should reach, the intranet version or the public (Internet) version. For each name that corresponds to a resource for which you want DirectAccess clients to reach the public version, you must add the corresponding FQDN as an exemption rule to the NRPT for your DirectAccess clients. Name suffixes that do not have corresponding DNS servers are treated as exemptions.
Reference: Design Your DNS Infrastructure for DirectAccess
QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Access server role installed.  DirectAccess is implemented on Server1 by using the default configuration. You discover that DirectAccess clients do not use DirectAccess when accessing websites on the Internet. You need to ensure that DirectAccess clients access all Internet websites by using their DirectAccess connection. What should you do?
A. Configure a DNS suffix search list on the DirectAccess clients.
B. Enable the Route all traffic through the internal network policy setting in the DirectAccess Server
Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Configure DirectAccess to enable force tunneling.
D. Disable the DirectAccess Passive Mode policy setting in the DirectAccess Client Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-698
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION NO: 43
Which characteristic differentiates an IP storage adapter from a traditional network interface card (NIC)?
A. 2 Gbps data rate
B. TCP/IP offload engine (TOE)
C. jumbo frames
D. link aggregation
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link
B. Fabric Lane
C. Fabric Long
D. Fabric Loop
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN
B. E ports
C. Name Server
D. Logical Units
70-698 dump 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
A company needs to backup its data without application interruption. Cost and application performance are both important. The data Can be backed up at night when the applications an intensive. What must be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape
B. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to the tape.
C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back tue snapshot up to the tape
D. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
What is the maximum porntecial bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 4 Gb SAN?
A. 400 Mbps
B. 400 MBps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 800 MBps
70-698 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server
B. rename the Zone Server
C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch
D. create and activate required zone set on the switch
70-698 vce 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM
B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM
C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters
D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN
B. NAS
C. CAS
D. DAS
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday’s process backed up all changes since
Sunday’s backup. Tuesday’s process backed up all changes since Sunday’s backup including changed on Monday.
What type of backup is this?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Clone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk to disk (D2D) backup solutions?
A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library.
B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes
C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL
D. Disk array works as a “temporary cache” for the backup software
70-698 dump 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three times already?
A. latest full must be restored
B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored
C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored
D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 55
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel
B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel
C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit
D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit
70-698 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
Which statement describes the “cylinder” in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved
B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media
C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located’
D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 57
Which method protects data bu maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk
B. mirroring
C. parity RAID
D. NDMP
70-698 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 58
Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy.
B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy
C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks
D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI
B. the network connection is on a dedicated network
C. they are using a software initiator
D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA
70-698 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
70-698 dump
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop
B. Node Link
C. Node Long
D. Node LISM
Answer: A

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Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

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Question: 34
As an HR Professional you must recognize and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affect your performance as an HR Professional. What term describes the illegal agreement of the management to give an individual a job, as long as the person does not join or be involved with a labor union?
A. Yellow dog contract
B. Scab
C. Shill contract
D. Non-union agreement
810-403 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A yellow dog contract is an agreement between management and an individual that gives a person a job as long as the person does not join a union. The Norris-LaGuardia Act prohibited federal courts from enforcing yellow dog contracts. Answer option B is incorrect. A scab is a derogatory term assigned to a person who will cross a picket line to work for an organization experiencing a strike by workers. Answer option C is incorrect. A shill contract is not a valid term. Answer option D is incorrect. A non-union agreement is not a valid term for this scenario.

Question: 35
Which one of the following presents the seven stages of internal consulting in the correct order?
A. Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
B. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
C. Gathering agreement to the project plan, Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
D. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
810-403 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The seven stages of internal consulting are as follows:
1.Exploring the situation
2.Gathering agreement to the project plan
3.Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings
4.Developing recommendations
5.Presenting the findings and recommendations
6.Implementing
7.Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option A is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting.

Question: 36
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages or benefits, to men and women who perform substantially equal work for the same employer, in the same establishment, and under similar working conditions. The law defined substantial equality of job content on four factors. Which one of the following is not one of the four factors this law defines?
A. Effort
B. Working conditions
C. Skill
D. Education
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 defines the substantial equality of job contents based on skills, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Skill, effort, and working conditions are defined as part of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Question: 37
Which of the following is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Employee self-assessment
C. Performance management
D. Supervisory training
810-403 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance management is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively. Performance management includes activities to ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
Answer option D is incorrect. Supervisory training generally involves topics related to interactions with employees, such as performance management, progressive discipline, performance appraisals, workplace safety, and training.
 Answer option A is incorrect. Performance appraisal is a structure for documenting individual performance. Performance appraisal can contribute to productive relationships between employees and their supervisors. Answer option B is incorrect. Employee self-assessment process is meant to be a two-way conversation. In this process, employees are asked to assess their own performance as part of the appraisal.
Question: 38
Which of the following are established by Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees
B. Minimum wage requirement
C. Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
D. Health insurance requirement
Answer: B, C, and A
Explanation:
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 established the following:
Minimum wage requirement Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees Answer option D is incorrect. Health insurance requirement are not established by FLSA.
Question: 39
You are completing a Form I-9 with a newly hired employee. Which one of the following documents is not allowed as a proof of identity and employment eligibility for the newly hired employee?
A. Driver’s license
B. Expired US passport
C. Certificate of naturalization
D. Unexpired reentry permit
810-403 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
A driver’s license is a document that is acceptable to establish identity, but it is not acceptable as a document that confirms eligibility of employment. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An expired US passport, certificate of naturalization, and unexpired reentry permit are legitimate documents for the proof of employment eligibility and for identity.

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 129:
STPs connect to ________ over A links.
A. The 800 database
B. Calling name data bases
C. Each other
D. Switches
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 130:
Common channel signal packets are exchanged using:
A. Routers.
B. Bridges.
C. STPs.
D. Switching processors.
Answer: C
QUESTION 131:
The national architecture that uses SS7 to provide services such as calling name
display is called the:
A. Integrated Services Digital Network.
B. Superior Signaling Network.
C. Advanced Intelligent Network.
D. National Advanced Information Infrastructure.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 132:
The terminating switch sends a query to a database asking for a subscriber name
using:
A. Advanced MF signaling.
B. ISDN Q.931 signaling.

C. SS7 messaging.
D. AIN address signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
The process of connecting one input to another for a period of time is:
A. Switching.
B. Transmission.
C. Bridging.
D. Routing.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 134:
The three basic functions of switches are concentration, _______ and expansion
A. Transmission
B. Signaling
C. Addressing
D. Distribution
Answer: D
QUESTION 135:
OAM&P capabilities include translations, testing, provisioning, and one other very
important function called:
A. Switching.
B. Billing.
C. Conversion.
D. Detection.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 136:
Step by step switches operated on:
A. Touchtone signals.
B. A single digit at each switch.
C. 110 volts AC power.

D. A millisecond switching cycle.
Answer: B
QUESTION 137:
The switches in a crossbar type switching system are at the intersection of:
A. Vertical and horizontal bars.
B. Streets and avenues.
C. Vertical and horizontal transistors.
D. Up and down magnets.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 138:
Time division switching stages are a characteristic of:
A. Analog stored program control switches.
B. Digital stored program control switches.
C. Signal transfer points.
D. Crossbar switching systems.
Answer: B
QUESTION 139:
DS0s within a DS1 or higher are switched in a:
A. Add-drop multiplexer.
B. Space-division switch.
C. Time-division multiplexed switch.
D. Crossbar switch.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 140:
The basic components of the time division switch are control logic, a buffer and:
A. Crosspoint switch.
B. Time-slot counter.
C. Memory.
D. Input/output.

Answer: B
QUESTION 141:
A space-division stage:
A. Uses a crosspoint switch.
B. Uses a buffer memory.
C. Switches time slots within a DS1.
D. Is not used in a digital switch.
210-260 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 142:
A digital switch is made up of the network fabric and:
A. Signaling processor.
B. Signal transfer point.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Control.
Answer: A
QUESTION 143:
Time-division switches and __________ make up the switching fabric of a digital
switch.
A. Signaling processors
B. Crossbar switches
C. Control processors
D. Space-division switches
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 144:
Optical switching are not currently used because:
A. Crossbar systems are less expensive.
B. Optical switches lack required OAM&P features.
C. Optical switching methodologies are still experimental.
D. Of difficulties in conversion between electrical and optical signals.

Answer: C
QUESTION 145:
Important considerations in justifying deployment of new telecommunications
technology include ________, revenue enhancement, security and regulation.
A. ITU standard migration
B. Teleconferencing
C. Cost reduction
D. Internet telephony
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Consideration of multiple styles of people interacting via telecommunications should
result in:
A. An increase in the software content of the solution.
B. Multiple solutions to identified needs.
C. Discarding solutions which serve a small percentage of customers.
D. More versatile call centers with Internet connectivity.
Answer: D
QUESTION 147:
You have business continuity as a means of improving security in the CO. What is
the second concern you should address?
A. Employee education
B. Reporting processes
C. Intrusion detection
D. Hackers
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 148:
You have identified intrusion detection as a means of improving security. What is
the second concern in regards to telephony?
A. Identifying threats
B. Identifying common attacks on the CO

C. Identifying common vulnerabilities in systems
D. Identifying business continuity concerns
Answer: D
QUESTION 149:
What does a traffic table enable you to do?
A. Determine the number of necessary lines.
B. Determine the number of customers served.
C. Determine the number of available lines.
D. Determine the number of connections made over a period of time.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 150:
Which of the following helps you determine the number of necessary lines?
A. A line matrix
B. Service criteria
C. A traffic table
D. A connectivity map
Answer: C
QUESTION 151:
Erlang B extended is used when:
A. Blocked calls are queued.
B. Blocked calls are denied.
C. Blocked calls result in customer retries.
D. Blocked calls go to a “call back later” announcement.
210-260 vce Answer:
QUESTION 152:
What type of signal is exchanged between computer networks?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Network
D. Stand-alone

Answer: A
QUESTION 153:
What is the most common transmission type for low-speed data communications?
A. Encoded digital
B. Encoded analog
C. Unencoded digital
D. Unencoded analog
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 154:
What kind of equipment are modems and CSU/DSUs?
A. Hosts
B. Terminals
C. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. Data communications equipment (DCE)
Answer: D

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