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Free Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
QUESTION 8
An application receives JSON data in the following format:
70-483 dumps
The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to ensure that the ConvertToName() method returns the JSON input string as a Name object. Which code segment should you insert at line 10?
A. Return ser.ConvertToType<Name>(json);
B. Return ser.DeserializeObject(json);
C. Return ser.Deserialize<Name>(json);
D. Return (Name)ser.Serialize(json);
70-483 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize<T> – Converts the specified JSON string to an object of type T.

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
An application serializes and deserializes XML from streams. The XML streams are in the following format:

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The application reads the XML streams by using a DataContractSerializer object that is declared by the following code segment:
var ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(Name));
You need to ensure that the application preserves the element ordering as provided in the XML stream. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct locations in the answer area-Each attribute may be used
 once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DataContractAttribute – Specifies that the type defines or implements a data contract and is serializable by a serializer, such as the DataContractSerializer. To make their type serializable, type authors must define a data contract for their type. DataMemberAttribute – When applied to the member of a type, specifies that the member is part of a data contract and is serializable by the DataContractSerializer.
QUESTION 10
You are developing an application. The application converts a Location object to a string by using a method named WriteObject. The WriteObject() method accepts two parameters, a Location object and an XmlObjectSerializer object. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to serialize the Location object as a JSON object. Which code segment should you insert at line 20?
A. New DataContractSerializer(typeof(Location))
B. New XmlSerializer(typeof(Location))
C. New NetDataContractSenalizer()
D. New DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(Location))
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The DataContractJsonSerializer class serializes objects to the JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and deserializes JSON data to objects. Use the DataContractJsonSerializer class to serialize instances of a type into a JSON document and to deserialize a JSON document into an instance of a type.
QUESTION 11
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() from the Person class. Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Internal
B. Protected
C. Private
D. Protected internal
E. Public
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Protected – The type or member can be accessed only by code in the same class or structure, or in a class that is derived from that class.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173121.aspx
The
protected keyword is a member access modifier. A protected member is accessible within its class and by derived class instances.
QUESTION 12
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The DoWork() method must not throw any exceptions when converting the obj object to the IDataContainer interface or when accessing the Data property. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer)obj;
B. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
70-483 pdf
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As – The as operator is like a cast operation. However, if the conversion isn’t possible, as returns null instead of raising an exception.
QUESTION 13
You are creating an application that manages information about zoo animals. The application includes a class named Animal and a method named Save. The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Animal class that uses a constructor that accepts no parameters. You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you define a generic class, you can apply restrictions to the kinds of types that client code can use for type arguments when it instantiates your class. If client code tries to instantiate your class by using a type that is not allowed by a constraint, the result is a compile-time error. These restrictions are called constraints. Constraints are specified by using the where contextual keyword.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You are developing a class named ExtensionMethods. You need to ensure that the ExtensionMethods class implements the IsEmail() method on string objects. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
QUESTION 15
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peals periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 0 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server’ will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peaty periods.
QUESTION 16
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US $1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100c’% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-483 vce
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If bath firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultantprice war will cause bath firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is inevitable whenreduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. The effect is a no-winstrategy. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 17
The arrival time follows which probability distribution?
A. Binomial
B. Chi-Square
C. Poisson
D. Exponential
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: the events arrivals) areindependent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability{of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability {of more thanone event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently} small. If is the average number of eventsin a given interval, k is the number of events, and e is the natural logarithm 2.71828…), theprobability of k is. f K) =k e -k ! A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one onan island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determining the averagewaiting times of customers and has developed a model based on random numbers. The twokey factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath service windows bathrequiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unlessthat window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone teller will always servethe car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached windowwill be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 18
The time that car 3 will have to wait to be serviced:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
70-483 exam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 1 is at the attached window and will require minutes to service. Car 2 must wait for car 1to be serviced minutes the queue + minutes to be serviced = 6 minutes). Car arrived atthe attached window minutes after cars 1 and . It must wait 1 minute for car 1 to be servicedand minutes for car to be serviced, a waiting time of 4 minutes. A bank has two drive-in lanesto serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one on an island. One teller servesbath stations. The bank
is interested in determining the average waiting times of customersand has developed a model based on random numbers. The two key factors are the timebetween successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysisbegins with cars just arriving at bath service windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of servicetime. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unless that window has more carswaiting than the island window. The lone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. Iftwo cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached window will be served before the oneat the island.
QUESTION 19
The time that car 4 will have to wait to be:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 4 arrives at the just-vacated island window 4 minutes after car. It must wait 4 minutesfor car to be serviced.
QUESTION 20
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximin rule.
D. Maxi max rule.
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses thedecision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by riskaverseplayers, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equalgain.

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Free ISC CISSP Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilizes public key cryptography.
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
D. It is a second party authentication system.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). Kerberos is a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
The following answers are incorrect:
It utilizes public key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text. Is incorrect because the passwords are not exchanged but used for encryption and decryption of the keys. It is a second party authentication system. Is incorrect because Kerberos is a third party authentication system, you authenticate to the third party (Kerberos) and not the system you are accessing.
References:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?
A. Audit mechanisms.
B. Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.
C. Authorization.
D. Formal verification of system design.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is a means of being able to track user actions. Through the use of audit logs and other tools the user actions are recorded and can be used at a later date to verify what actions were performed. Accountability is the ability to identify users and to be able to track user actions. The following answers are incorrect: Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria. Is incorrect because the Common Criteria is an international standard to evaluate trust and would not be a factor in System Accountability. Authorization. Is incorrect because Authorization is granting access to subjects, just because you have
authorization does not hold the subject accountable for their actions. Formal verification of system design. Is incorrect because all you have done is to verify the system design
and have not taken any steps toward system accountability.
References:
OIG CBK Glossary (page 778)
QUESTION 5
What is Kerberos?
A. A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.
B. A trusted third-party authentication protocol.
C. A security model.
D. A remote authentication dial in user server.
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is correct because that is exactly what Kerberos is.
The following answers are incorrect:
A three-headed dog from Egyptian mythology. Is incorrect because we are dealing with Information Security and not the Egyptian mythology but the Greek Mythology. A security model. Is incorrect because Kerberos is an authentication protocol and not just a security model. A remote authentication dial in user server. Is incorrect because Kerberos is not a remote authentication dial in user server that would be called RADIUS.
QUESTION 6
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
A. Public Key cryptography.
B. Secret Key cryptography.
C. El Gamal cryptography.
D. Blowfish cryptography.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It
  is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be SYMMETRIC (or secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or ASYMMETRIC (aka ‘Public Key’) in which encryption and decryption keys differ. ‘Public Key’ methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric
key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method. For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block
is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one ‘data unit’ (typically 1 byte) at a time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm. Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
QUESTION 7
A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user’s identity is called a:
A. PIN
B. User ID
C. Password
D. Challenge
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PIN Stands for Personal Identification Number, as the name states it is a combination of numbers. The following answers are incorrect: User ID This is incorrect because a Userid is not required to be a number and a Userid is only used to establish identity not verify it.
Password. This is incorrect because a password is not required to be a number, it could be any combination of characters. Challenge. This is incorrect because a challenge is not defined as a number, it could be anything.
QUESTION 8
Individual accountability does not include which of the following?
A. unique identifiers
B. policies & procedures
C. access rules

D. audit trails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Accountability would not include policies & procedures because while important on an effective security program they cannot be used in determing accountability.
The following answers are incorrect:
Unique identifiers. Is incorrect because Accountability would include unique identifiers so that you can identify the individual. Access rules. Is incorrect because Accountability would include access rules to define access violations. Audit trails. Is incorrect because Accountability would include audit trails to be able to trace violations or attempted violations.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?
A. Operators are not permitted modify the system time.
B. Programmers are permitted to use the system console.
C. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.
D. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.
CISSP vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is an example of Separation of Duties because operators are prevented from modifying the system time which could lead to fraud. Tasks of this nature should be performed by they system administrators. AIO defines Separation of Duties as a security principle that splits up a critical task among two or more individuals to ensure that one person cannot complete a risky task by himself.
The following answers are incorrect:
Programmers are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because programmers should not be permitted to use the system console, this task should be performed by operators. Allowing programmers access to the system console could allow fraud to occur so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks. Is incorrect because operators should be able to mount tapes and disks so this is not an example of Separation of Duties. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because operators should be able to use the system console so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (page 98 – 101)
AIOv3 Access Control (page 182)
QUESTION 10
An access control policy for a bank teller is an example of the implementation of which of the following?
A. Rule-based policy
B. Identity-based policy
C. User-based policy
D. Role-based policy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The position of a bank teller is a specific role within the bank, so you would implement a role- based policy.
The following answers are incorrect:
Rule-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on rules and not the role of a of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
Identity-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on the identity of an individual and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization. User-based policy. Is incorrect because this would be based on the user and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
QUESTION 11
Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?
A. Mechanisms based on IP addresses
B. Mechanism with reusable passwords
C. One-time password mechanism.
D. Challenge response mechanism.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Anything based on a fixed IP address would be a problem for mobile users because their location and its associated IP address can change from one time to the next. Many providers will assign a new IP every time the device would be restarted. For example an insurance adjuster using a laptop to file claims online. He goes to a different client each time and the address changes every time he connects to the ISP.
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
The term MOBILE in this case is synonymous with Road Warriors where a user is constantly traveling and changing location. With smartphone today that may not be an issue but it would be an issue for laptops or WIFI tablets. Within a carrier network the IP will tend to be the same and would change rarely. So this question is more applicable to devices that are not cellular devices but in some cases this issue could affect cellular devices as well.
The following answers are incorrect:
Mechanism with reusable password. This is incorrect because reusable password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. They are the least secure and change only at specific interval one-time password mechanism. This is incorrect because a one-time password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. Many are based on a clock and not on the IP address of the user Challenge response mechanism. This is incorrect because challenge response mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users.
QUESTION 12
Organizations should consider which of the following first before allowing external access to their LANs via the Internet?
A. Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms.
B. Plan for protecting the modem pool.
C. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information.
D. Plan for considering proper authentication options.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Before a LAN is connected to the Internet, you need to determine what the access controls mechanisms are to be used, this would include how you are going to authenticate individuals that may access your network externally through access control.
The following answers are incorrect:
Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms. This is incorrect because locking the workstations have no impact on the LAN or Internet access. Plan for protecting the modem pool. This is incorrect because protecting the modem pool has no impact on
the LAN or Internet access, it just protects the modem. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information. This is incorrect because the question asks what should be done first. While important your primary concern should be focused on security.

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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?
A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B. It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C. It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D. It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E. It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F. It supports non-IP protocols.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
QUESTION 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
QUESTION 8 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But you don’t have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time. # echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤ when System Reboot on next time, etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file /etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter. net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
QUESTION 10 CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it’s giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window System.

300-209 exam Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)./tmp is full ornotQuota is already reachedVideo card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary filequota username ¨¤ if quota is alread reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤ you can pass the
Kernel Argument from boot loader.Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card, resolution etc.Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network’s Host?
300-209 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254 OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
QUESTION 12 CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

12. mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 13 CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from allservers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from otherhost configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS=”-m 0 -r” Where
-m 0 disables ‘MARK’ messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
QUESTION 14 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:Boot the System on Single user mode.Change the passwordCheck the account expire date by using chage -l root command. If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 15 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤ What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
QUESTION 16  Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 20 CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 21 CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question No : 9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
400-251 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client

B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
400-251 dumps
A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION NO: 17
On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User’s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
400-251 exam Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Cascade product runs under Riverbed Service Platform (RSP)?
A.
Sensor-VE
B.Gateway-VE
C.
Express RSP
D.
Pilot
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
From Cascade Pilot, reports may include:
A. One or all views from the main workspace.
B. Notes entered associated with a view.
C. Analyst and Client information entered.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question No : 21 To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)
A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts
400-251 pdf 
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 22 What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?
A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 23  Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)
A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company
400-251 vce 
Answer: A,B
Question No : 24 Where do you define the mandatory attributes for a vendor?
A. Organizational plan
B. Vendor group
C. Product category
D. Business partner (vendor)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26  What is used for downloading product categories from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. CRM Middleware
B. ALE Distribution
C. Transaction COMM_HIERARCHY
D. Transaction BBPGETVD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27 What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP.
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 28  What do you activate to enable the administrator troubleshooting issues related to SRM objects (for example, shopping carts, purchase orders)?
A. Business transaction event (BTE)
B. Administrator console
C. Objects for synchronization
D. Application monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 29  Requisitions were transferred from ECC 6.0 EhP04 to SRM 7.0 using SOA, but are missing from the sourcing work list. Which transaction in SRM can you use to troubleshoot this
problem?
A. SLG1
B. WE05
C. SXMB_MONI
D. BD87
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30  Your customer would like to use vendor and purchasing organization to determine the backend system for follow-on documents. What is a valid solution for this requirement?
A. This is not possible in the standard system and requires a modification.
B. Since SAP SRM 7.0 you can define this on the function tab of the purchasing
organization within the organizational plan.
C. Maintain the customizing table Define Backend Systems respectively.
D. Use the respective Business Add-In (BAdI) and implement a specific coding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 31 During testing you discover that a confirmation created in SAP SRM did not generate a goods receipt posting in SAP ERP as expected.
Which transaction could be used to troubleshoot this problem?
A. BBP_BW_SC2
B. SXMB_MONI
C. SMQ2
D. WE05
QUESTION NO: 32
Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select “Apply with Filter”.
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
400-251 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
400-251 dumps Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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Free Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 69
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models that use Monte Carlo processes?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. They may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo simulation is often used in computer modeling to generate the individual values for a random variable. The performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each variable in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. Because Monte Carlo processes use the laws of probability to generate values for random variables, simulations using them are probabilistic, not deterministic.
QUESTION 70
The sales manager for a builder of custom yachts developed the following conditional table for annual production and sales: According to the table, how many yachts should be built?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To achieve the maximum expected profit. 30 yachts should be built. For each level of production, multiply the probability of demand by the expected profit. The computation for the maximum is: 0.1 (- US $10) + 0.2($10) + 0.5($30) + 0.2($30) = US $22.
QUESTION 71
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US$1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If both firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultant price war will cause both firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is
inevitable when reduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. This is classified as a no-win strategy.

QUESTION 72
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the:
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximinrule.
D. Maximaxrule.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses the decision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by risk-averse players, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equal gain.
QUESTION 73
Your company (Company Y) has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is aware that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this problem as a:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game; if it is possible for both players to profit, the game is a positive- sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffs for each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and Y chooses limited advertising, X’s payoff is -1 and Ys is 1.
QUESTION 74
If the bank uses the maximax criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
70-742 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk-seeking, optimistic decision makers employ the maximax criterion. It is the strategy with the highest potential payoff, regardless of the state of nature. In this case, it is location L5 (US $29). ”
QUESTION 75
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch. it will select:
A. LI
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes the maximum regret (opportunity cost). The maximum regret for each location is determined from the opportunity loss matrix.
QUESTION 76
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If, in addition to the estimated profits .management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3.0.4, and 0.3, respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location L4?
A. US$5.50
B. US$7.90
C. US$7.50
D. US$5.00
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First, the opportunity loss matrix must be prepared
QUESTION 77
During the past few years, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of US $800. For US $1,000 per month, Wilder can lease a generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings (or additional expense) for the year will be
A. US $(15,200)
B. US $(1,267)
C. US$3,200
D. US$7,200
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this expense can be avoided by paying US $1,000 per month (US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the
probability distribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages per month.
3/12×0 = 0.0
2/12×1 = 0.16667
4/12×2 = 0.66667

3/12×3 =0.75000
1.58334
The company can expect to have, on average. 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 per outage, the expected cost is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1.000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.

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DRAG DROP
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server with one project collection and multiple build machines. A development team installs and configures a build service on a new build machine. You need to be able to validate that the installation and configuration meets your organization’s requirements and follows its best practices. At which service would you perform the following tasks? (To answer, drag the appropriate build component to the correct standards- checking task in the answer area. Each build component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

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Question: 2
You are planning to install a new Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You need to ensure that the minimum supported version of Microsoft SQL Server is installed. Which version should you install?
A. SQL Server 2005
B. SQL Server 2008 32-bit
C. SQL Server 2008 64-bit
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. SQL Server 2012
070-496 exam Answer: D
Question: 3
To support your development team’s upgrade from Visual Studio 2010 to Visual Studio 2012, you also upgrade from Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2010 to TFS 2012. You need to provide a TFS 2012 test environment that:
• Includes data and source code from your existing TFS 2010 environment and

• Allows your developers to test the new TFS 2012 and Visual Studio 2012 features while keeping the current TFS 2010 environment intact. What should you do?
A. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same server as TFS 2010. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
B. Install TFS 2012 on a new server. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
C. Clone the existing TFS 2010 environment (including the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services) on new servers and update the internal IDs. Upgrade the cloned environment to TFS 2012.
D. Copy the existing TFS 2010 database, SharePoint, and SQL Server Reporting services to a new set of servers. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same hardware as TFS 2010, and point TFS 2012 to the new servers.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and a virtual test environment that uses Lab Management 2012 along with System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) 2010. You want to install a test virtual machine that is hosted within a lab environment. You need to ensure that the test virtual machine can support all the features of Lab Management 2012. Which component should you install on the test virtual machine?
A. Agents for Visual Studio 2012
B. Visual Studio Build Agent 2012
C. Visual Studio Test Agent 2012
D. Visual Studio Lab Agent 2012
070-496 dumps Answer: A
Question: 5
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server named TFS1. SharePoint and Reporting Services components are also installed and configured for TFS on the same server. You need to be able to access the SharePoint Project Portal from the TFS server by using the following URL: http://tfs.fabrikam.com. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL.
B. From Visual Studio Team Explorer, edit the portal settings.
C. Run the TFSC0nfIg.exe SharePointportal command.
D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, configure the Alternate Access Mappings.
Answer: D
Question: 6
Your network environment includes a Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 named TFS1 that contains two project collections named PC1 and PC2. A build server named Bi is configured with a build controller named C1 and an agent named A1 that runs build definitions created in Pd. A development team wants to create a gated check-in build definition on PC2. You need to perform a supported infrastructure enhancement to run PC2 build definitions. What should you do?
A.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, migrate controller C1 and install a new controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
B.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, install a build controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the B2 build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
C.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, update the Al agent to use controllers C1 and C2.
D.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
070-496 pdf Answer: B
Question: 7
Your network environment is configured according to the following table:
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Your TFS environment is configured with the following URLs:
• TFS: http://tfssrv:8080/tfs
• Reporting: http://tfssrv/reports
• SharePoint: http://tfssrv/sites
You need to configure only the TFS URL to be the following fully qualified domain name (FQDN): http://tfs.contoso.com. You log on to the application-tier server. What should you do next?

A. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the host name with the friendly name.
B. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Notification URL text box.
C. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the server URL with the friendly name.
D. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Server URL text box.
Answer: B

 

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Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 234

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Free Microsoft 70-411 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 82
Which Decision rule type is best used to display nested “if” statements? (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
70-411 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 83
What happens if none of the rows in a Decision Table evaluate to True? (Choose One)
A. The table does not return a result value
B. The table’s next-highest ancestor is evaluated
C. The table returns a default ‘otherwise’ value
D. The system cycles through the table again to check for errors
Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
A requirement specification states that if a test score is between 91 and 100, assign the grade A; 81 – 90, assign a B; 71 – 80, assign a C. Which two rule types are appropriate for this requirement? (Choose Two)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. When Condition
D. Flow Action
70-411 dumps Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 85
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 86
(True or False) Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
70-411 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 87
(True or False) Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single cell in a Decision Table rule using multiple OR conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 88
Which rule type is not classified as a decision rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. Map Value
D. When
E. Declare Expressions
70-411 vce Answer: E
QUESTION: 89
Which of the following is not associated with the Decision shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision table
B. Map value
C. When rule
D. Decision tree
Answer: C
QUESTION: 90
(True or False) When PRPC evaluates a decision tree, if the entire tree is processed without returning a true result, the Otherwise value is returned.
A. True
B. False
70-411 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 91
(True or False) A When rule can be used to conditionally allow a user to perform an
action.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 92
Select the answer that best describes how PRPC executes a decision tree. (Choose One)
A. PRPC evaluates the if portion of the array
B. PRPC continues until it reaches a Return statement
C. PRPC returns the Otherwise value if the entire tree is processed without encountering a Return statement
D. PRPC performs all of the above actions when evaluating a decision tree

70-411 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 93
A When rule is referenced by which flow shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Fork
C. Connector
D. Assignment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 94
A Decision shape in a flow can represent either a decision or a fork. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a decision and a fork? (Choose One)
A. There is no difference; a decision and a fork are interchangeable
B. A decision requires an Else connector, but a fork does not
C. A fork references a Boolean expression; a decision does not
D. A decision references a rule; a fork does not
70-411 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 96
(True or False) When a Section rule is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must also be opened and saved.

A. True
B. False
70-411 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 97
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value. On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field be set? (Choose One)
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition
D. Always
Answer: C
QUESTION: 98
What are three rule types that can be identified by using the Rules Inspector? (Choose Three)
A. Property
B. Data Transform
C. Constraints
D. Section
E. Harness
70-411 exam Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 99
The term Dynamic Select refers to . (Choose One)
A. the process used during Rule Resolution
B. a PRPC decision rule
C. a UI control that displays a drop-down list with dynamically-generated values
D. the process used to generate an end user’s RuleSet list
Answer: C

QUESTION 100
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F’xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. “‘s^ ‘s nc* ‘elated to price
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined
QUESTION 101
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 102
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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Free Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 200 desktop computers that run Windows Vista Service Pack 2(SP2). All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1 to OU1. You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to computers that run Windows 8. What should you do?
A. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
B. Create and link a WMI filter to GPO1.
C. Run the Set-GPInheritancecmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
D. Run the Set-GPLinkcmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WMI Filtering is used to get information of the system and apply the GPO on it with the condition is met.Security filtering: apply a GPO to a specific group (members of the group)
QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1. What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You make a change to GPO1. You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which tool should you use?
A. TheSecedit command
B. The Invoke-GpUpdatecmdlet
C. Group Policy Object Editor
D. Server Manager
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains an Edge Server named Server1. Server1 is configured as a DirectAccess server. Server1 has the following settings: Internal DNS name: Server1.contoso.com External DNS name: dal.contoso.com Internal IPv6 address: 2002:cla8:6a:3333::l External IPv4 address: 65.55.37.62
Your company uses split-brain DNS for the contoso.com zone. You run the Remote Access Setup wizard as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to ensure that client computers on the Internet can establish DirectAccess connections to Server1. Which additional name suffix entry should you add from the Remote Access Setup wizard?
A. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
B. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
C. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
D. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
70-417 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* In a non-split-brain DNS environment, the Internet namespace is different from the intranet namespace. For example, the Contoso Corporation uses contoso.com on the Internet and corp.contoso.com on the intranet. Because all intranet resources use the corp.contoso.com DNS suffix, the NRPT rule for corp.contoso.com routes all DNS name queries for intranet resources to intranet DNS servers. DNS name queries for names with the contoso.com suffix do not match the corp.contoso.com intranet namespace rule
in the NRPT and are sent to Internet DNS servers.
* Split-brain DNS is a configuration method that enables proper resolution of names (e.g., example.com) from both inside and outside of your local network. Note: For split-brain DNS deployments, you must list the FQDNs that are duplicated on the Internet and intranet and decide which resources the DirectAccess client should reach, the intranet version or the public (Internet) version. For each name that corresponds to a resource for which you want DirectAccess clients to reach the public version, you must add the corresponding FQDN as an exemption rule to the NRPT for your DirectAccess clients. Name suffixes that do not have corresponding DNS servers are treated as exemptions.
Reference: Design Your DNS Infrastructure for DirectAccess
QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Access server role installed.  DirectAccess is implemented on Server1 by using the default configuration. You discover that DirectAccess clients do not use DirectAccess when accessing websites on the Internet. You need to ensure that DirectAccess clients access all Internet websites by using their DirectAccess connection. What should you do?
A. Configure a DNS suffix search list on the DirectAccess clients.
B. Enable the Route all traffic through the internal network policy setting in the DirectAccess Server
Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Configure DirectAccess to enable force tunneling.
D. Disable the DirectAccess Passive Mode policy setting in the DirectAccess Client Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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