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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 74-678 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. License Mobility through Software Assurance (SA) is an SA benefit that provides users with the right to access Microsoft Office Professional Plus in a company’s Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) from computers that are not company owned, such as kiosk computers at hotels. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. License Mobility within Server Farms
C. Home Use Program
D. Roaming Use Rights
E. Windows Companion Subscription License
74-678 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A customer purchases server licenses through a Select Plus agreement and has a Software Assurance Membership (SAM) for the server pool. To which three SAM benefits is the customer entitled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. E-Learning
B. Roaming Use Rights
C. Planning Services
D. Enhanced Edition Benefits
E. Training Vouchers
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software Assurance Benefits:
There are over a dozen SA benefits and the amount of benefits your organization has depends on the licensing agreement. The list below highlights the most popular benefits associated with Office.
* (a) E-Learning
* (c) Planning services
* New software versions
* (e) Training vouchers
* Home Use Program
* 24×7 phone and web support
* Technet
* Microsoft Office Multi Language Pack
Reference: Microsoft Office 2010 Engineering, Understanding Software Assurance

QUESTION 3
A customer plans to deploy a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) by using Microsoft technologies. Users will access the deployment on-premises and at home from personal computers. You need to tell the customer which Software Assurance (SA) benefits can be used to enable a full VDI deployment. Which three SA benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Windows Roaming Use Rights
B. Visualization Rights for Windows
C. Enhanced Edition Benefits
D. Windows Virtual Desktop Access (VDA) rights
E. Home Use Program
F. Windows Thin PC
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Extended roaming rights
Primary user of a VDA or SA device can access VDI desktop from any device outside the corporate firewall
C: Use any version of Windows
Upgrade/downgrade rights for Windows included
E: Software Assurance (SA) licensing provides Windows desktop customers with technical support, training vouchers, home-use rights and other benefits.

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. builds cloud applications. Microsoft Azure allows the company’s developers to deploy and manage their applications and to pay for only the resources that their applications use. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Windows Intune
C. A Power BI for Office 365 subscription
D. A Microsoft Office 365 Developer subscription
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have mailboxes that use Unified Messaging The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer acquires Microsoft Office 365 add-ons through an Enterprise Agreement. The customer must consult the Volume Licensing Online Services Terms (OST) document to see whether the number of add-ons can be reduced at the anniversary of the agreement. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct
A. No change is needed.
B. Microsoft Product List
C. Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR)
D. Microsoft Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Microsoft Volume Licensing Product Use Rights document, commonly referred to as “the PUR” (pronounced”per”), is part of your Microsoft Volume Licensing agreement. When you need to know how to license a particular product or the specifics of what you can do with that product under the terms of your license agreement, generally, the PUR has the information you need. The PUR details use rights for specific products and details the rights that apply to all software licensed through Microsoft Volume Licensing.
* When you purchase a software license through a Microsoft Volume Licensing program, the terms and conditions for how you can use the software are defined in the Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR) document, Product List document, and program agreement.
Incorrect:
Not B: Product List (PL)
Published monthly, the Microsoft Product List (PL) provides information about availability, discontinuations, migration paths, and subscription benefits for Microsoft software and Online Services acquired through Volume Licensing programs.
not D: Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
The Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR) provides details on how products acquired through the Microsoft Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA) may be used.

QUESTION 7
A company has 1,000 desktop computers that run Windows 8.1. The company also has 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company does not use server visualization.
You need to recommend a solution to manage all of the computers and the servers on the network. Which two licenses should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Standard server management license (ML)
C. Microsoft Core CAL Suite
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter server management license (ML)
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing non-virtualized and lightly virtualized servers
C: Need CAL licenses for the clients.
Incorrect:
Not D: System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers

QUESTION 8
A customer plans to implement a data center. All of the servers in the data center will run Windows Server 2012 R2. The customer will manage all virtual servers by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2. The customer plans to be licensed for unlimited virtualization. You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation. What should you recommend that the customer purchase?
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
B. System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
C. System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter
D. Core Infrastructure Server Suite Datacenter
74-678 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers.

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the tasks that the customer can perform through the Microsoft Volume Licensing Center (MVLC). Which three tasks should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. View and manage licenses purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
B. Order on-premises software.
C. View and manage Software Assurance (SA) benefits purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
D. Self-provision Online Services.
E. View and manage licenses purchased through an existing Select Plus agreement.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Volume Licensing Service Center (VLSC) gives you easy access to:
* (C) Activate and consume Software Assurance benefits
* (D) Download products and keys
Volume Licensing benefits
Access all your licensing information in one location View your relationship summary and license summary details Review the status of your enrollments

QUESTION 10
A company named Contoso, Ltd. does not have an active Volume Licensing agreement. Contoso needs to purchase 575 Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 User Subscription Licenses (USLs). Through which agreement should Contoso acquire the licenses?
A. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
B. Open Value Subscription
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Select Plus
74-678 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPSA can benefit organizations with a minimum of 150 seats.

QUESTION 11
A customer is evaluating the purchase of Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise El User Subscription Licenses (USLs) through a Microsoft Online Subscription Agreement (MOSA), or by adding the licenses to an existing Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA). You need to tell the customer why they should purchase the USLs through the MPSA. What should you tell the customer?
A. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional rights.
B. It is easier to manage software assets if they are acquired through one agreement.
C. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional Software Assurance (SA) benefits.
D. License prices are approximately 50 percent less expensive when acquired through the MPSA.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The new Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is a single agreement for your Online Services, software, and Software Assurance purchases across your organization. It can save time and money by combining purchase points for the best price level and reducing the administrative overhead associated with managing multiple agreements.
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Free Microsoft 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(7-18)

QUESTION 7
The Montreal data center experiences a power failure. You need to ensure that all the users can access their mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to implement a solution to meet the security requirement for the temporary employees. You deploy an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster, and then you run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for email messages that contain information about the Fabrikam acquisition. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create an Outlook protection rule.
B. Create a new custom message classification.
C. Modify the registry on all client computers.
D. Modify the Content Filtering settings.
E. Export the Message Classification configuration to an .xml file.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Use the New-MessageClassification cmdlet to create a message classification instance in your organization.
E: After you create a new message classification, you can specify the message classification as a transport rule predicate. Before Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App users can apply the message classification to messages, you must update the end-user systems with the message classification XML file created by the Export-OutlookClassification.ps1 script file. The Export- OutlookClassification.ps1 script file is located in the %ExchangeInstallPath%Scripts directory.
C: Microsoft Office Outlook requires a local file (Classifications.xml) that contains definitions of the message classifications that Microsoft Exchange Server supports before Outlook users can apply message classifications to their messages. You must also create a registry key that enables message classification and references the Classifications.xml file on the Outlook user’s computer.
* From scenario:
Compliance Requirements include:
Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.

QUESTION 10
You need to implement a solution that meets the collaboration requirements. What should you do?
A. Run the Set-CASMailbox cmdlet.
B. Create an organization relationship.
C. Create a new sharing policy.
D. Modify the organization configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Custom recipient MailTips created in the Exchange Server organization of Trey Research must be visible to the users at Fabrikam. The solution must ensure that administrators can define a subset of users who can share their MailTips.
* MailTips Over Organization Relationships
You may want to restrict certain types of MailTips. You can either allow all MailTips to be returned or allow only a limited set that would prevent NDRs. You can configure this setting with the MailTipsAccessLevel parameter on the Set-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet.
Reference: MailTips over organization relationships

QUESTION 11
You need to implement a solution that meets the compliance requirements for the members of the legal department. Which two cmdlets should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-RoleAssignmentPolicy
B. Add-ManagementRoleEntry
C. New-ManagementRoleAssignment
D. New-ManagementRole
E. New-ManagementScope
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Only the users in the legal department must be able to use eDiscovery to view the contents of email messages sent by the finance department users.
/ Users in the legal department use a shared mailbox named Legal. Legal is enabled for In-Place Hold. Legal is the only mailbox on DB2.
We need to assign the role to the legal department users using the New- ManagementRoleAssignment cmdlet. To restrict the eDiscovery access to the finance users emails, we need to create a scope using the New ManagementScope cmdlet.

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution that meets the auditing requirements. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
The following actions must be audited for actions in the Legal mailbox only:
Delegate – Purge mailbox content
Delegate – Transfer file between folders
Administrator – Messages sent by administrator
Administrator – Open any content within the mailbox
* Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
HardDelete: An e-mail is permanently deleted
Move: An e-mail is moved to another folder
MessageBind: An e-mail is opened or viewed in the preview pane
Create: An item (excluding folders) is created in the mailbox (a message is sent, for example)
Reference: Auditing Mailbox Access

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for emailing bank account numbers. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: All users must be notified before they send an email message that contains any five bank account numbers to an external recipient. The users must be able to override the requirement if they have a valid business reason to send the email message.
Transport rules apply actions to messages, most with corresponding action values. RejectUnlessSilentOverride Message is rejected unless the sender has chosen to override the policy restriction. RejectUnlessExplicitOverride This is the same as RejectUnlessSilentOverride, but the sender can also provide a justification for overriding the policy restriction.
Reference: New-TransportRule

QUESTION 14
You need to identify which technologies must be used to meet the security requirements.
Which technologies should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct requirements. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
You need to recommend a solution that supports the planned changes for the public folders. Which four cmdlets should you recommend running in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps

QUESTION 16
You need to configure the Exchange Server UM dial plan for the planned integration of UM and Lync Server. How should you configure the UM dial plan? (To answer, select the appropriate dial plan type and VoIP security mode in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Integrate Unified Messaging (UM) services with the Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
* If you want to integrate Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) with Lync Server 2013, you must perform the following tasks:
/ On the Exchange UM server, create a SIP dial plan based on your organization’s specific
deployment requirements.
/ To encrypt Enterprise Voice traffic, configure the security settings on the Exchange UM SIP dial plan as SIP Secured or Secured.
Note:
* There are three formats or URI types that can be configured on UM dial plans:
/ Telephone Extension (TeleExtn)
/ SIP URI
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a standard protocol for initiating interactive user sessions that involve multimedia elements such as video, voice, chat, and gaming. SIP is a request-to-response based protocol that answers requests from clients and responses from servers.
/ E.164
* When you configure the dial plan to use SIP secured mode, only the SIP signaling traffic will be encrypted, and the RTP media channels will still use TCP, which isn’t encrypted. However, when you configure the dial plan to use Secured mode, both the SIP signaling traffic and the RTP media channels are encrypted. An encrypted signaling media channel that uses Secure Realtime Transport Protocol (SRTP) also uses mutual TLS to encrypt the VoIP data. Reference: UM dial plans

QUESTION 17
You are attempting to resolve the email delivery issue for Fabrikam. You need to identify which certificate is being used by the servers in the Exchange Server organization of Fabrikam. In which directory on EX1 should you review the log files? (To answer, select the appropriate directory in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: After a change to a certificate, users report that email messages sent to Fabrikam are not delivered.
* ProtocolLog
Protocol logging records the SMTP conversations that occur between messaging servers as part of message delivery. These SMTP conversations occur on Send connectors and Receive connectors that exist in the Front End Transport service on Client Access servers, the Transport service on Mailbox servers, and the Mailbox Transport service on Mailbox servers. You can use protocol logging to diagnose mail flow problems.

QUESTION 18
You restore the files of DB3 to EX3. You need to mount DB3 on EX3. The solution must ensure that email messages sent to the users of DB3 while the database was offline are delivered once DB3 is mounted. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 7
You need to implement the Views\RunLog\_CalculatePace.cshtml partial view from Views\Runlog \GetLog.cshtml to display the runner’s average mile pace. How should you implement the view? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

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70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

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70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-486 dumps

QUESTION 9
You need to implement the map of the runners’ paths. How should you build the video viewer? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
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QUESTION 11
You need to ensure that the application uses RunLogRoleProvider custom role provider. How should you modify the web.config file? (To answer, drag the appropriate line of code to the correct location or locations. Each line of code may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-486 dumps

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
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70-486 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your company’ has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is mare that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemyor competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sumof the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, thealgebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game. However, if it is possible for bothplayers to profit, the game is a positive sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffsfor each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and 1` chooseslimited advertising. QC’s payoff is -1 and Y’s is 1. A bank plans to open a branch in one offive locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium,or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presentedin the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 14
If the bank uses the rnaxirna criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the maximax criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that maximizes themaximum profit. The maximum profits for the five locations are A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demandfor bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for eachlocation-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 15
If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select.
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L4.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion,the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes themaximum regret (opportunity cost)the maximum regret for each location is determined fromthe opportunity loss matrix.The maximum regret for each location is the highest number ineach column as indicated below. The location with the minimum regret is L2. If demand is low, L2 has a payoff 2, whereas L1 has a payoff of 7. A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of theselocations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 16
If, in addition to the estimated profits, management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3, 0.4, and 0.3 respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location of L4?
A. 5.50
B. 7.90
C. 7.50
D. 5.00
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The opportunity loss matrix is as follow:
QUESTION 17
During the past few gears, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of U $300. For U $1,000 per month, At US $800 can lease generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings or additional expense) for the year will be:
A. U $ 15,200)
B. US $ 1,267)
C. U $3,200
D. U $7,200
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this experience can be avoided by paying US $1,000 permonth US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the probabilitydistribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages permonth. The company can expect to have, on average, 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 peroutage, the expected costs is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1,000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.
QUESTION 18
Philip enterprises, distributor of compact disks(CDS),is developing its budgeted cost of goods sold for 1998.Philip has developed the following range of sales estimates and associated probabilities for the year: Philip’s cost of goods sold averages 80% of sales. t hat is the expected value of Philip’s 1998 budgeted cost of goods sold?
A. US $85,000
B. US $84,000
C. US $68,000
D. US $67,200
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The expected value is calculated by weighting each sales estimate by the probability of itsoccurrence. Consequently, the expected value of sales is US $84,000 [$60,000 .25) +$85,000 .40) + $100,000 .35)]. Cost of goods sold is therefore US $67,200 800/0 $84,000).
QUESTION 19
The expected value of perfect information is the:
A. Same as the expected profit under certainty.
B. Sum of the conditional profit loss) for the best event of each act times the probability ofeach event occurring.
C. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected opportunity loss.
D. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected monetary valueof the best act under uncertainty:

70-486 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Perfect information permits certainty that a future state of nature will occur. The expectedvalue of perfect information determines the maximum amount a decision
maker is willing topay for information. It is the difference between the expected value without perfectinformation, that is,the expected value of the best action under uncertainty and the expectedvalue under certainty. Under certainty, a decision maker knows in each case which state ofnature will occur and can act accordingly.
QUESTION 20
A chief executive officer CEO) believes that a major competitor may be planning a new campaign. The CEO sends a questionnaire to key personnel asking for original thinking concerning what the new campaign may be. The CEO selects the best possibilities then sends another questionnaire asking for the most likely option. The process employed by the CEO is called the
A. Least squares technique.
B. Delphi technique.
C. Maximum likelihood technique.
D. Optimizing of expected payoffs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Delphi technique is a forecasting or decision-making approach that attempts to avoidgroupthink the tendency of individuals to conform to what they perceive to be theconsensus). The technique allows only written, anonymous communication among groupmembers. Each member takes a position on the problem at hand. A summary of thesepositions is communicated to each member. The process is repeated for several iterations asthe members more toward a consensus. Thus, the Delphi technique is a qualitative, notquantitative, technique.The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home footballgames. The pretzels are sold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Anyunsold pretzels are discarded because they will be stale before the next home game. Theestimated demand for pretzel at the next home football game.
QUESTION 21
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using an expected value approach is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The calculation using an expected value approach weights each possible sales volume by itsprobability. Thus, the estimated demand is 4,400 pretzels. The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home football games. The pretzels aresold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Any unsold pretzels are discardedbecause they will be stale before the next home game. 95. The estimated demand for pretzelat the next home football game. The frequency distribution of the demand for pretzels pegame is presented as follows.
QUESTION 22
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using a deterministic approach based on the most likely outcome is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A deterministic approach assumes that a value is known with certainty. If that value isdeemed to be the most likely outcome, assumed demand will be 5,000 pretzels, Thevolumewith the highest probability 35%). A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee onany given day. If the stand sells soft drinks and the weather i= hot, it will make US $2,600; ifthe weather is cold, the profit will be US $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather ishot, it will make US $1,900: if the weather is cold, the profit will be US $2,000. Theprobability of cold weather on a given day at this time is 60°l%.

QUESTION 23
The expected payoff if the vendor has perfect information is:
A. US $3,900
B. US $2,200
C. US $1,360
D. US $1,960
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The vendor would like to sell coffee on cold days US $2,000) and soft drinks on hot daysUS $2,500). Hot days are expected 40°l0 of the time. Hence, the probability is 40°f0 ofmaking US $2,500 by selling soft drinks. The chance of making US $2,000 by selling coffeeis 600k. The payoff equation is: 4 US $2,600) + .6 $2,000 = US $2,200 A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee on any given day. If the stand sells softdrinks and the weather is hot, it will make US $2,500; if the weather is cold, the profit will beU $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather is hot, it will make US $1,900; if theweather is cold, the profit will be U $2,000. The probability of cold weather on a given day atthis time is 60%.

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Free Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
QUESTION 8
An application receives JSON data in the following format:
70-483 dumps
The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to ensure that the ConvertToName() method returns the JSON input string as a Name object. Which code segment should you insert at line 10?
A. Return ser.ConvertToType<Name>(json);
B. Return ser.DeserializeObject(json);
C. Return ser.Deserialize<Name>(json);
D. Return (Name)ser.Serialize(json);
70-483 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize<T> – Converts the specified JSON string to an object of type T.

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
An application serializes and deserializes XML from streams. The XML streams are in the following format:

70-483 dumps
The application reads the XML streams by using a DataContractSerializer object that is declared by the following code segment:
var ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(Name));
You need to ensure that the application preserves the element ordering as provided in the XML stream. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct locations in the answer area-Each attribute may be used
 once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DataContractAttribute – Specifies that the type defines or implements a data contract and is serializable by a serializer, such as the DataContractSerializer. To make their type serializable, type authors must define a data contract for their type. DataMemberAttribute – When applied to the member of a type, specifies that the member is part of a data contract and is serializable by the DataContractSerializer.
QUESTION 10
You are developing an application. The application converts a Location object to a string by using a method named WriteObject. The WriteObject() method accepts two parameters, a Location object and an XmlObjectSerializer object. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to serialize the Location object as a JSON object. Which code segment should you insert at line 20?
A. New DataContractSerializer(typeof(Location))
B. New XmlSerializer(typeof(Location))
C. New NetDataContractSenalizer()
D. New DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(Location))
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The DataContractJsonSerializer class serializes objects to the JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and deserializes JSON data to objects. Use the DataContractJsonSerializer class to serialize instances of a type into a JSON document and to deserialize a JSON document into an instance of a type.
QUESTION 11
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() from the Person class. Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Internal
B. Protected
C. Private
D. Protected internal
E. Public
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Protected – The type or member can be accessed only by code in the same class or structure, or in a class that is derived from that class.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173121.aspx
The
protected keyword is a member access modifier. A protected member is accessible within its class and by derived class instances.
QUESTION 12
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The DoWork() method must not throw any exceptions when converting the obj object to the IDataContainer interface or when accessing the Data property. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer)obj;
B. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
70-483 pdf
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As – The as operator is like a cast operation. However, if the conversion isn’t possible, as returns null instead of raising an exception.
QUESTION 13
You are creating an application that manages information about zoo animals. The application includes a class named Animal and a method named Save. The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Animal class that uses a constructor that accepts no parameters. You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you define a generic class, you can apply restrictions to the kinds of types that client code can use for type arguments when it instantiates your class. If client code tries to instantiate your class by using a type that is not allowed by a constraint, the result is a compile-time error. These restrictions are called constraints. Constraints are specified by using the where contextual keyword.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You are developing a class named ExtensionMethods. You need to ensure that the ExtensionMethods class implements the IsEmail() method on string objects. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
QUESTION 15
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peals periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 0 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server’ will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peaty periods.
QUESTION 16
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US $1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100c’% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-483 vce
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If bath firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultantprice war will cause bath firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is inevitable whenreduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. The effect is a no-winstrategy. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 17
The arrival time follows which probability distribution?
A. Binomial
B. Chi-Square
C. Poisson
D. Exponential
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: the events arrivals) areindependent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability{of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability {of more thanone event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently} small. If is the average number of eventsin a given interval, k is the number of events, and e is the natural logarithm 2.71828…), theprobability of k is. f K) =k e -k ! A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one onan island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determining the averagewaiting times of customers and has developed a model based on random numbers. The twokey factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath service windows bathrequiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unlessthat window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone teller will always servethe car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached windowwill be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 18
The time that car 3 will have to wait to be serviced:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
70-483 exam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 1 is at the attached window and will require minutes to service. Car 2 must wait for car 1to be serviced minutes the queue + minutes to be serviced = 6 minutes). Car arrived atthe attached window minutes after cars 1 and . It must wait 1 minute for car 1 to be servicedand minutes for car to be serviced, a waiting time of 4 minutes. A bank has two drive-in lanesto serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one on an island. One teller servesbath stations. The bank
is interested in determining the average waiting times of customersand has developed a model based on random numbers. The two key factors are the timebetween successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysisbegins with cars just arriving at bath service windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of servicetime. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unless that window has more carswaiting than the island window. The lone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. Iftwo cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached window will be served before the oneat the island.
QUESTION 19
The time that car 4 will have to wait to be:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 4 arrives at the just-vacated island window 4 minutes after car. It must wait 4 minutesfor car to be serviced.
QUESTION 20
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximin rule.
D. Maxi max rule.
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses thedecision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by riskaverseplayers, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equalgain.

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Free Microsoft 70-742 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 69
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models that use Monte Carlo processes?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. They may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo simulation is often used in computer modeling to generate the individual values for a random variable. The performance of a quantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values for each variable in the model (based on the probability distribution of each variable) and then calculating the value of the solution. Because Monte Carlo processes use the laws of probability to generate values for random variables, simulations using them are probabilistic, not deterministic.
QUESTION 70
The sales manager for a builder of custom yachts developed the following conditional table for annual production and sales: According to the table, how many yachts should be built?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 50
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To achieve the maximum expected profit. 30 yachts should be built. For each level of production, multiply the probability of demand by the expected profit. The computation for the maximum is: 0.1 (- US $10) + 0.2($10) + 0.5($30) + 0.2($30) = US $22.
QUESTION 71
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US$1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If both firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultant price war will cause both firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is
inevitable when reduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. This is classified as a no-win strategy.

QUESTION 72
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the:
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximinrule.
D. Maximaxrule.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses the decision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by risk-averse players, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equal gain.
QUESTION 73
Your company (Company Y) has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is aware that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this problem as a:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemy or competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sum of the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, the algebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game; if it is possible for both players to profit, the game is a positive- sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffs for each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and Y chooses limited advertising, X’s payoff is -1 and Ys is 1.
QUESTION 74
If the bank uses the maximax criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
70-742 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk-seeking, optimistic decision makers employ the maximax criterion. It is the strategy with the highest potential payoff, regardless of the state of nature. In this case, it is location L5 (US $29). ”
QUESTION 75
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch. it will select:
A. LI
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L5.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes the maximum regret (opportunity cost). The maximum regret for each location is determined from the opportunity loss matrix.
QUESTION 76
A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations (labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix. If, in addition to the estimated profits .management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3.0.4, and 0.3, respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location L4?
A. US$5.50
B. US$7.90
C. US$7.50
D. US$5.00
70-742 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
First, the opportunity loss matrix must be prepared
QUESTION 77
During the past few years, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of US $800. For US $1,000 per month, Wilder can lease a generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings (or additional expense) for the year will be
A. US $(15,200)
B. US $(1,267)
C. US$3,200
D. US$7,200
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this expense can be avoided by paying US $1,000 per month (US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the
probability distribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages per month.
3/12×0 = 0.0
2/12×1 = 0.16667
4/12×2 = 0.66667

3/12×3 =0.75000
1.58334
The company can expect to have, on average. 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 per outage, the expected cost is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1.000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.

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Free Microsoft 070-496 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question: 1
DRAG DROP
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server with one project collection and multiple build machines. A development team installs and configures a build service on a new build machine. You need to be able to validate that the installation and configuration meets your organization’s requirements and follows its best practices. At which service would you perform the following tasks? (To answer, drag the appropriate build component to the correct standards- checking task in the answer area. Each build component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

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Question: 2
You are planning to install a new Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You need to ensure that the minimum supported version of Microsoft SQL Server is installed. Which version should you install?
A. SQL Server 2005
B. SQL Server 2008 32-bit
C. SQL Server 2008 64-bit
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. SQL Server 2012
070-496 exam Answer: D
Question: 3
To support your development team’s upgrade from Visual Studio 2010 to Visual Studio 2012, you also upgrade from Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2010 to TFS 2012. You need to provide a TFS 2012 test environment that:
• Includes data and source code from your existing TFS 2010 environment and

• Allows your developers to test the new TFS 2012 and Visual Studio 2012 features while keeping the current TFS 2010 environment intact. What should you do?
A. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same server as TFS 2010. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
B. Install TFS 2012 on a new server. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
C. Clone the existing TFS 2010 environment (including the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services) on new servers and update the internal IDs. Upgrade the cloned environment to TFS 2012.
D. Copy the existing TFS 2010 database, SharePoint, and SQL Server Reporting services to a new set of servers. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same hardware as TFS 2010, and point TFS 2012 to the new servers.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and a virtual test environment that uses Lab Management 2012 along with System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) 2010. You want to install a test virtual machine that is hosted within a lab environment. You need to ensure that the test virtual machine can support all the features of Lab Management 2012. Which component should you install on the test virtual machine?
A. Agents for Visual Studio 2012
B. Visual Studio Build Agent 2012
C. Visual Studio Test Agent 2012
D. Visual Studio Lab Agent 2012
070-496 dumps Answer: A
Question: 5
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server named TFS1. SharePoint and Reporting Services components are also installed and configured for TFS on the same server. You need to be able to access the SharePoint Project Portal from the TFS server by using the following URL: http://tfs.fabrikam.com. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL.
B. From Visual Studio Team Explorer, edit the portal settings.
C. Run the TFSC0nfIg.exe SharePointportal command.
D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, configure the Alternate Access Mappings.
Answer: D
Question: 6
Your network environment includes a Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 named TFS1 that contains two project collections named PC1 and PC2. A build server named Bi is configured with a build controller named C1 and an agent named A1 that runs build definitions created in Pd. A development team wants to create a gated check-in build definition on PC2. You need to perform a supported infrastructure enhancement to run PC2 build definitions. What should you do?
A.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, migrate controller C1 and install a new controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
B.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, install a build controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the B2 build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
C.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, update the Al agent to use controllers C1 and C2.
D.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
070-496 pdf Answer: B
Question: 7
Your network environment is configured according to the following table:
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Your TFS environment is configured with the following URLs:
• TFS: http://tfssrv:8080/tfs
• Reporting: http://tfssrv/reports
• SharePoint: http://tfssrv/sites
You need to configure only the TFS URL to be the following fully qualified domain name (FQDN): http://tfs.contoso.com. You log on to the application-tier server. What should you do next?

A. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the host name with the friendly name.
B. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Notification URL text box.
C. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the server URL with the friendly name.
D. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Server URL text box.
Answer: B

 

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Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 234

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Free Microsoft 70-411 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 82
Which Decision rule type is best used to display nested “if” statements? (Choose One)
A. Map Value
B. When Condition
C. Decision Table
D. Decision Tree
70-411 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 83
What happens if none of the rows in a Decision Table evaluate to True? (Choose One)
A. The table does not return a result value
B. The table’s next-highest ancestor is evaluated
C. The table returns a default ‘otherwise’ value
D. The system cycles through the table again to check for errors
Answer: C
QUESTION: 84
A requirement specification states that if a test score is between 91 and 100, assign the grade A; 81 – 90, assign a B; 71 – 80, assign a C. Which two rule types are appropriate for this requirement? (Choose Two)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. When Condition
D. Flow Action
70-411 dumps Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 85
Which of the following rule types can be used to evaluate multiple property values and, as a result, return a text value defined in the rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Tree
B. Constraints
C. When Condition
D. Validate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 86
(True or False) Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
70-411 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 87
(True or False) Two or more comparisons can be placed into a single cell in a Decision Table rule using multiple OR conditions.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 88
Which rule type is not classified as a decision rule? (Choose One)
A. Decision Table
B. Decision Tree
C. Map Value
D. When
E. Declare Expressions
70-411 vce Answer: E
QUESTION: 89
Which of the following is not associated with the Decision shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision table
B. Map value
C. When rule
D. Decision tree
Answer: C
QUESTION: 90
(True or False) When PRPC evaluates a decision tree, if the entire tree is processed without returning a true result, the Otherwise value is returned.
A. True
B. False
70-411 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 91
(True or False) A When rule can be used to conditionally allow a user to perform an
action.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
QUESTION: 92
Select the answer that best describes how PRPC executes a decision tree. (Choose One)
A. PRPC evaluates the if portion of the array
B. PRPC continues until it reaches a Return statement
C. PRPC returns the Otherwise value if the entire tree is processed without encountering a Return statement
D. PRPC performs all of the above actions when evaluating a decision tree

70-411 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 93
A When rule is referenced by which flow shape? (Choose One)
A. Decision
B. Fork
C. Connector
D. Assignment
Answer: C
QUESTION: 94
A Decision shape in a flow can represent either a decision or a fork. Which of the following statements best describes the difference between a decision and a fork? (Choose One)
A. There is no difference; a decision and a fork are interchangeable
B. A decision requires an Else connector, but a fork does not
C. A fork references a Boolean expression; a decision does not
D. A decision references a rule; a fork does not
70-411 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 95
Which standard harness rule is used to display the Take Action options available to the user responsible for processing the work object assignment? (Choose One)
A. Review
B. Perform
C. Confirm
D. Reopen
Answer: B
QUESTION: 96
(True or False) When a Section rule is updated, all Harness rules using that Section rule must also be opened and saved.

A. True
B. False
70-411 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 97
A Property has been added into a Section rule. The input box for that Property should only be displayed when a clipboard Property is set to a particular value. On the Conditions tab of the Cell Properties panel, how should the Visible field be set? (Choose One)
A. If Not Blank
B. If Not Zero
C. Other Condition
D. Always
Answer: C
QUESTION: 98
What are three rule types that can be identified by using the Rules Inspector? (Choose Three)
A. Property
B. Data Transform
C. Constraints
D. Section
E. Harness
70-411 exam Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 99
The term Dynamic Select refers to . (Choose One)
A. the process used during Rule Resolution
B. a PRPC decision rule
C. a UI control that displays a drop-down list with dynamically-generated values
D. the process used to generate an end user’s RuleSet list
Answer: C

QUESTION 100
_________ is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined.
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. F’xed P|ice
C. Time and material
D. “‘s^ ‘s nc* ‘elated to price
70-411 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Cost plus incentive fee is always the lowest risk for the buyer if the scope of work is not well defined. Fixed price and purchase order are the best choice for buyer when the item is well defined
QUESTION 101
How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 102
Acceptance of the product should be ________.
A. Formal
B. Consistent
C. Personal
D. Verbal
70-411 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The acceptance should be formal.

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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Free Microsoft 70-417 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 25
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 400 desktop computers that run Windows 8 and 200 desktop computers that run Windows Vista Service Pack 2(SP2). All of the desktop computers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains startup script settings. You link GPO1 to OU1. You need to ensure that GPO1 is applied only to computers that run Windows 8. What should you do?
A. Modify the Security settings of OU1.
B. Create and link a WMI filter to GPO1.
C. Run the Set-GPInheritancecmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
D. Run the Set-GPLinkcmdlet and specify the -target parameter.
70-417 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
WMI Filtering is used to get information of the system and apply the GPO on it with the condition is met.Security filtering: apply a GPO to a specific group (members of the group)
QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Remote Desktop Session Host role service installed. The computer account of Server1 resides in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. You create and link a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 to OU1. GPO1 is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
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You need to prevent GPO1 from applying to your user account when you log on to Server1. GPO1 must apply to every other user who logs on to Server1. What should you configure?
A. Item-level targeting
B. Security Filtering
C. Block Inheritance
D. WMI Filtering
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Security filtering is a way of refining which users and computers will receive and apply the settings in a Group Policy object (GPO). Using security filtering, you can specify that only certain security principals within a container where the GPO is linked apply the GPO. Security group filtering determines whether the GPO as a whole applies to groups, users, or computers; it cannot be used selectively on different settings within a GPO.
QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. You make a change to GPO1. You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which tool should you use?
A. TheSecedit command
B. The Invoke-GpUpdatecmdlet
C. Group Policy Object Editor
D. Server Manager
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains an Edge Server named Server1. Server1 is configured as a DirectAccess server. Server1 has the following settings: Internal DNS name: Server1.contoso.com External DNS name: dal.contoso.com Internal IPv6 address: 2002:cla8:6a:3333::l External IPv4 address: 65.55.37.62
Your company uses split-brain DNS for the contoso.com zone. You run the Remote Access Setup wizard as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to ensure that client computers on the Internet can establish DirectAccess connections to Server1. Which additional name suffix entry should you add from the Remote Access Setup wizard?
A. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
B. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a blank DNS Server Address value
C. A Name Suffix value of Server1.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
D. A Name Suffix value of dal.contoso.com and a DNS Server Address value of 65.55.37.62
70-417 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* In a non-split-brain DNS environment, the Internet namespace is different from the intranet namespace. For example, the Contoso Corporation uses contoso.com on the Internet and corp.contoso.com on the intranet. Because all intranet resources use the corp.contoso.com DNS suffix, the NRPT rule for corp.contoso.com routes all DNS name queries for intranet resources to intranet DNS servers. DNS name queries for names with the contoso.com suffix do not match the corp.contoso.com intranet namespace rule
in the NRPT and are sent to Internet DNS servers.
* Split-brain DNS is a configuration method that enables proper resolution of names (e.g., example.com) from both inside and outside of your local network. Note: For split-brain DNS deployments, you must list the FQDNs that are duplicated on the Internet and intranet and decide which resources the DirectAccess client should reach, the intranet version or the public (Internet) version. For each name that corresponds to a resource for which you want DirectAccess clients to reach the public version, you must add the corresponding FQDN as an exemption rule to the NRPT for your DirectAccess clients. Name suffixes that do not have corresponding DNS servers are treated as exemptions.
Reference: Design Your DNS Infrastructure for DirectAccess
QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Remote Access server role installed.  DirectAccess is implemented on Server1 by using the default configuration. You discover that DirectAccess clients do not use DirectAccess when accessing websites on the Internet. You need to ensure that DirectAccess clients access all Internet websites by using their DirectAccess connection. What should you do?
A. Configure a DNS suffix search list on the DirectAccess clients.
B. Enable the Route all traffic through the internal network policy setting in the DirectAccess Server
Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
C. Configure DirectAccess to enable force tunneling.
D. Disable the DirectAccess Passive Mode policy setting in the DirectAccess Client Settings Group Policy object (GPO).
70-417 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows 10
Q&As: 130

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QUESTION NO: 43
Which characteristic differentiates an IP storage adapter from a traditional network interface card (NIC)?
A. 2 Gbps data rate
B. TCP/IP offload engine (TOE)
C. jumbo frames
D. link aggregation
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Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 44
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type FL mean?
A. Fabric Link
B. Fabric Lane
C. Fabric Long
D. Fabric Loop
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 45
Which can be included in a zone?
A. WWPN
B. E ports
C. Name Server
D. Logical Units
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Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 46
A company needs to backup its data without application interruption. Cost and application performance are both important. The data Can be backed up at night when the applications an intensive. What must be done to meet these requirements?
A. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to the same host, back the snapshot up to tape
B. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to the tape.
C. Create a copy on write snapshot, mount the snapshot to the same host, back tue snapshot up to the tape
D. Create a split mirror snapshot. mount the snapshot to a different host, back the snapshot up to tape
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 47
What is the maximum porntecial bandwidth of a Fibre Channel connection in a 4 Gb SAN?
A. 400 Mbps
B. 400 MBps
C. 800 Mbps
D. 800 MBps
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
What is the definition of asinchronous replication?
A. Does not require acknowledged copy of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
B. requires acknowledged write of data on primary storage only and data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
C. Requires acknowledged write of data on primary and secondary storage before the write is acknowledged to the host.
D. Does not require acknowledged write of data on primary storage before data is forwarded to secondary site as network capabilities permit
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 49
After installing a new switch in the fabric, what will have to be performed by the system administrator?
A. decomission the Name Server
B. rename the Zone Server
C. update and install device drivers in all HBA attached to the switch
D. create and activate required zone set on the switch
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Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the distance limitations of parallel SCSI?
A. 3 meters to 1.5 KM
B. 25 meters to 1.5 KM
C. 1.5 meters to 25 meters
D. 1.5 meters to 12.5 meters
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 51
Which storage networking environment uses file access through a standard Ethernet network?
A. SAN
B. NAS
C. CAS
D. DAS
70-698 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 52
A Complete backup was done on Sunday. Monday’s process backed up all changes since
Sunday’s backup. Tuesday’s process backed up all changes since Sunday’s backup including changed on Monday.
What type of backup is this?
A. Full
B. Differential
C. Incremental
D. Clone
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement best describes an advantage of virtual tape libraries (VTL) in comparison to disk to disk (D2D) backup solutions?
A. Disk array does not respond to backup software command just as if it were a tape drive or tape library.
B. Virtual type is automatically sent to off-site vault after backup finishes
C. Existing backup applications and processes can be used with VTL
D. Disk array works as a “temporary cache” for the backup software
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54
What the steps to restore a complete backup that is using incremental method and has run three times already?
A. latest full must be restored
B. latest incremental and all subsequent must be restored
C. latest full and subsequent incremental backups must be restored
D. latest full and latest incremental backup must be restored
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 55
What is the main difference between PCI-X and PCI-E?
A. PCI-X is serial and PCI-E is parallel
B. PCI-E is Serial and PCI-X is parallel
C. PCI-X is 32-bit and PCI-E is 64-bit
D. PCI-E is 32-bit and PCI-X is 64-bit
70-698 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 56
Which statement describes the “cylinder” in the disk drive?
A. where the data is stored or retrieved
B. Used to read or write data on to the disk media
C. Used to seek to the area where the requested data is located’
D. A group of concentric slices through the physical disks.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 57
Which method protects data bu maintaining separate copies of the data on two or more disks?
A. backup to disk
B. mirroring
C. parity RAID
D. NDMP
70-698 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 58
Given that devices used in the backup are accessed using fully independent paths through the fabric and ports at the array. Which backup strategy has the least impact on perform the most improved availability to a production application running in an active/standby cluster?
A. backup at the standby host from a split-mirror point-in-time copy.
B. backup ata the primary host from a snapshot of a clone point-in-time copy
C. backup a the standby host from a delta-snapshot of the production disks
D. backup at the primary host from a multi-point snapshot of the production disks
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 59
A customer complains that they experience server performance issues with their OLTP database using an iSCSI storage device. What is the cause of the problem?
A. the database files are mounted and running on a file access protocol via iSCSI
B. the network connection is on a dedicated network
C. they are using a software initiator
D. they are using a TCP offload engine rather than an HBA
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 60
What is the maximum distance of a 50-micrometer multimode fiber a 850nm shortwave laser at 4 Gbps?
A. 500 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 150 meters
D. 70 meters
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Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
In Fibre Channel, what does the port type NL mean?
A. Node Loop
B. Node Link
C. Node Long
D. Node LISM
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-775
Exam Name: Perform Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure HDInsight (beta)
Q&As: 102

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70-775 dumps

Free Microsoft 70-775 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION: 29
What action would destroy all association links for an object in one operation?
A. DestroyLinkAction
B. DestroyObjectAction
C. ClearAssociationAction
D. ClearStructuralFeatureAction
E. RemoveStructuralFeatureAction
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 30
What is true when invoking a CreateObjectAction?
A. Behaviors can be executed.
B. The classifier cannot be abstract.
C. Initial expressions can be evaluated.
D. State machine transitions can be triggered.
E. The classifier cannot be an association class.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 31
What is NOT a valid VariableAction?
A. SetVariableAction
B. ClearVariableAction
C. ReadVariableAction
D. AddVariableValueAction
E. RemoveVariableValueAction
70-775 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 32
What does a circle with an X in it (as depicted in the exhibit) represent inside UML 2.0 activity
diagrams?

A. joins
B. forks
C. merges
D. decisions
E. initial nodes
F. flow final nodes
G. activity final nodes
Answer: F
QUESTION: 33
What kind of element is a central buffer?
A. state
B. action
C. activity
D. behavior
E. object node
F. control node
70-775 pdf Answer: E
QUESTION: 34
What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?
A. object flows
B. control flows
C. dependencies
D. state transitions
E. message passing
F. unidirectional associations
Answer: A
QUESTION: 35
What does an activity partition contain? (Choose two)
A. nodes
B. edges
C. states
D. classes
E. lifelines
F. messages
70-775 vce Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 36
How many arrows can connect to a partition?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number
Answer: A
QUESTION: 37
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrow provides a value, how many of the outgoing arrows will be
given values?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 exam Answer: D
QUESTION: 38
In the exhibit, how many of the arrows must provide values for the outgoing arrow to be given a value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
Answer: D
QUESTION: 39
In the exhibit, if the incoming arrows provide three control values, how many control values are
provided to the outgoing arrow?

A. none
B. one
C. two
D. three
70-775 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 40
If a central buffer has one value and three outgoing arrows go to three actions, how many of the
actions will receive the value?
A. none
B. one
C. two
D. any number

Answer: B
QUESTION: 41
What elements can have variables in activity diagrams?
A. actions
B. activities
C. partitions
D. structured nodes
E. structured edges
70-775 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION: 42
What determines whether a clause executes?
A. guards
B. classes
C. behaviors
D. test nodes
E. parameters
Answer: D
QUESTION: 43
In the exhibit, what is true about the diagram MOpt?

A. All traces of MOpt include message p.
B. All traces of MOpt include message q.
C. Receiving p will come before sending q.
D. No traces of MOpt include both messages p and q.
70-775 vce Answer: B
QUESTION: 44
In the exhibit, what is true about Mpar?

A. Every trace contains all three messages.
B. Sending p must always precede sending q.
C. Receiving p must always precede receiving q.
D. There are legal traces that do not contain message q.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 45
In the exhibit, what is true about Mstrict?

A. The whole Mstrict has only one legal trace.
B. Sending r precedes sending p in all legal traces.
C. Sending q precedes reception of r in all legal traces.
D. Within the strict combined fragment, sending a signal will immediately be followed by the
reception of that signal.
70-775 exam Answer: C
QUESTION: 46
What does it mean when message m is ignored in a combined fragment?
A. If m happens, the system should abort.
B. Nothing happens within the fragment until m appears.
C. Message m appears only in illegal traces of the fragment.
D. One or more m messages may appear at any point within the fragment.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 47
Assume !p denotes sending of p, ?p the reception of p. In the exhibit, what traces are valid?
(Choose three)

A. <!p, ?p, !q, ?q>
B. <!p, ?p, !r, !r, ?r, ?r, !q, ?q>
C. <!p, ?p, !r, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
D. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, !q, ?r, ?q>
E. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?r, !q, ?q>
F. <!p, !r, ?p, ?r, !r, ?r, !r, ?q, !r, ?q>
70-775 dumps Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 48
In the exhibit, what are the valid traces for Cont1?

A. either two p messages or two q messages
B. either p followed by q or q followed by p
C. only a p message followed by a q message
D. any combination of two p messages and two q messages
Answer: B
QUESTION: 49
What is the notation for gates?
A. circular disc at the interaction frame
B. point on the fragment frame with an optional name
C. small arrow either into or out from the fragment frame
D. small rectangle on the fragment frame with associated name
70-775 pdf Answer: B

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