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CompTIA Network+ ( N10-007) Certification Exam Details:

Network+ ensures an IT professional has the knowledge and skills to:

  • Design and implement functional networks
  • Configure, manage, and maintain essential network devices
  • Use devices such as switches and routers to segment network traffic and create resilient networks
  • Identify benefits and drawbacks of existing network configurations
  • Implement network security, standards, and protocols
  • Troubleshoot network problems
  • Support the creation of virtualized networks

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QUESTION 1
An organization recently installed a firewall on the network. Employees must be able to send and receive email from a
POP3 server. In which of the following ways should the firewall be configured? (Select TWO).
A. Allow TCP port 23
B. Allow TCP port 25
C. Allow TCP port 110
D. Allow UDP port 25
E. Allow UDP port 110
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
A technician arrives at a new building to find cabling has been run and terminated, but only the wall ports have been
labeled. Which of the following tools should be utilized to BEST facilitate labeling the patch panel?
A. Tone generator
B. Cable tester
C. Multimeter
D. Loopback adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The length of an IPv6 address is:
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Zach, a technician, suspects a duplicate IP address assignment on the network. Which of the following resources can
be used to verify this problem?
A. Network map
B. Environmental monitor
C. Placement map
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Jeff, a network technician, is installing a wireless router. Which of the following should Jeff consider to get the BEST
signal strength?
A. WAP placement
B. PoE devices
C. MAC filtering
D. Encryption type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network technician is implementing a solution on the network to hide the workstation internal IP addresses across a
WAN. Which of the following is the technician configuring?
A. QoS
B. DMZ
C. RIP
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols is used to transmit outgoing email?
A. RDP
B. NTP
C. POP3
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following cables has the MOST twists per inch?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAY5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The software that allows a machine to run multiple operating systems at once is called the:
A. Server manager
B. Hypervisor
C. Boot loader
D. Partition manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following protocols are used for accessing a command line terminal session for management purposes?
(Select TWO).
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. SSH
E. RDP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following MUST be implemented to share metrics between routing protocols within the same router?
A. Routing loop
B. Routing table
C. Route redistribution
D. Dynamic routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network technician is trying to terminate CAT5 modular jacks. Which of the following tools would be MOST
appropriate for this scenario?
A. Crimper
B. OTDR
C. Throughput tester
D. Punch down tool
Correct Answer: D

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CompTIA IT Fundamentals (FC0-U61) Certification Exam Details:

  • Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
  • Exam Code: FC0-U61
  • Exam Price: $119 (USD)
  • Duration: 60 mins
  • Number of Questions: 75
  • Passing Score: 650 / 900

Topics Covered in CompTIA FC0-U61 Certification Exam:

  • IT Concepts and Terminology (17%)
  • Infrastructure (22%)
  • Applications and Software (18%)
  • Software Development (12%)
  • Database Fundamentals (11%)
  • Security (20%)

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QUESTION 1
A small company wants to set up a server that is accessible from the company network as well as the Internet. Which of
the following is MOST important to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely?
A. The quality of the computer used to connect
B. A security method of allowing connections
C. The employees\\’ home ISP speeds
D. The geographical location of the employees
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be
completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.
B. Enable task scheduling.
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which of the following situations should there be come expectation of privacy?
A. Posting a comment on a friend\\’s social media page
B. Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site
C. Posting a comment on a video sharing site
D. Sending email and pictures to a close relative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands
should the administrator use?
A. SELECT
B. INSERT
C. DELETE
D. UPDATE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Check Knowledge Base.
B. Search local logs.
C. Research possible theories.
D. Question users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a wireless communication that requires devices to be within 6in of each other to transfer
information?
A. Infrared
B. NFC
C. Bluetooth
D. WiFi
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the FASTEST transfer rate?
A. 1001Kbps
B. 110Mbps
C. 1.22Gbps
D. 123Mbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local
(intranet) pages. Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
A. Renew the IP address.
B. Configure the browser proxy settings.
C. Clear the browser cache.
D. Disable the pop-up blocker
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a
computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed?
A. Algorithm
B. Software
C. Pseudocode
D. Flowchart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an advantage of installing an application to the cloud?
A. Data is not stored locally.
B. Support is not required.
C. Service is not required.
D. Internet access is not required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
A. ASCII
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Unicode
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the basic computing operations?
A. Input, process, output, and feedback
B. Input, output, storage, and feedback
C. Input, process, and output
D. Input, process, output, and storage
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to execute a program? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. UNIX
D. Windows Server 2012
E. Android
F. Linux
Correct Answer: CF

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following early examples of cloud computing was used for software engineering purposes in the form of

web-based applications and required interoperability between different systems? 

A. Distributed Computing 

B. Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) 

C. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) 

D. Desktop Virtualization 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline? 

A. Increased costs 

B. Larger knowledge base 

C. Increased free hard drive space 

D. Improved service level 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the BEST environment in which to deploy into cloud? 

A. Production 

B. Development 

C. Quality Assurance 

D. Staging 

Correct Answer: D 

“Staging is where you deploy code before you deploy to production.” 

Reference: https://increment.com/development/center-stage-best-practices-for-staging-environments/ 

 

QUESTION 4

Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that

information by any party. 

A. companies, others 

B. companies, themselves 

C. individuals, others 

D. individuals, themselves 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

A company uses an IaaS cloud deployment model with a third-party vendor. Which of the following does the company

fully control? (Choose two.) 

A. Operating systems 

B. Physical servers 

C. Service availability 

D. Physical security 

E. Storage 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 6

Elastic computing is important to businesses as it relates to which of the following cloud characteristics? 

A. Scalability 

B. Security 

C. Integrity 

D. Distribution 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

In which of the following scenarios is cloud computing the LEAST advantages? 

A. An organization needs access to applications for a short period of time 

B. An organization needs access to physically secure highly sensitive data 

C. An organization needs to synchronize calendar functions on a rightly basis 

D. An organization deals with non-mission-critical applications 

Correct Answer: B 

Reference: https://www.levelcloud.net/why-levelcloud/cloud-education-center/advantages-and-disadvantages-of-cloud-computing/ 

 

QUESTION 8

A company recently implemented a cloud infrastructure. Now their customers are receiving unsolicited advertisements

form third-party vendors. Which of the following did the company neglect to consider before implementing the cloud? 

A. Privacy risks 

B. Local compliance policies 

C. Cost of the implementation 

D. Legal standards 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

A company decides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT

administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The

company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this

company implemented? 

A. Outsourcing 

B. Virtualization 

C. PaaS 

D. IaaS 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility? 

A. Return on investment 

B. Integrity 

C. Elasticity 

D. Vendor lock-in 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy? 

A. Open up internal databases with Web service access. 

B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers 

C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines. 

D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

A company wants to implement an internal virtualized infrastructure to provide its employees with on demand storage

which will be accessible through a web interface over the public Internet. This is an example of which of the following? 

A. Public cloud 

B. Community cloud 

C. Hybrid cloud 

D. Private cloud 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following factors of service must be managed effectively by a SaaS provider in a cloud computing

environment? 

A. Application access levels 

B. Client background checks 

C. Availability 

D. User acceptance 

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using LX0-103 dumps SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct
answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to
perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
LX0-103 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to
rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take
effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
LX0-103 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based
package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
LX0-103 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time
that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
LX0-103 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?
A. TKIP
B. Mac filtering
C. WPA2
D. WPA
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the
following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router.
Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by
the computer with IP 10.2.2.10.
DIAGRAM
PC1 PC2
[192.168.1.30]——–[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS
10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN
10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK
10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following
can be inferred about the above environment?
A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server.
B. The web server listens on a non-standard port.
C. The router filters port 80 traffic.
D. The router implements NAT.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the
following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?
A. NIPS
B. HIDS
C. HIPS
D. NIDS
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with
additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST
likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
The Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has tasked The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT) to
develop and update all Internal Operating Procedures and Standard Operating Procedures documentation
in order to successfully respond to future incidents. Which of the following stages of the Incident Handling
process is the team working on?
A. Lessons Learned
B. Eradication
C. Recovery
D. Preparation
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following should be considered to mitigate data theft when using CAT5 wiring?
A. CCTV
B. Environmental monitoring
C. Multimode fiber
D. EMI shielding
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Used in conjunction, which of the following are PII? (Select TWO).
A. Marital status
B. Favorite movie
C. Pet’s name
D. Birthday
E. Full name
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10
A victim is logged onto a popular home router forum site in order to troubleshoot some router configuration
issues. The router is a fairly standard configuration and has an IP address of
192.168.1.1. The victim is logged into their router administrative interface in one tab and clicks a forum link
in another tab. Due to clicking the forum link, the home router reboots. Which of the following attacks
MOST likely occurred?
A. Brute force password attack
B. Cross-site request forgery
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Fuzzing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A recent spike in virus detections has been attributed to end-users visiting www.compnay.com. The
business has an established relationship with an organization using the URL of www.company.com but not
with the site that has been causing the infections. Which of the following would BEST describe this type of
attack?
A. Typo squatting
B. Session hijacking
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Spear phishing
SY0-401 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following attacks impact the availability of a system? (Select TWO).
A. Smurf
B. Phishing
C. Spim
D. DDoS
E. Spoofing
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 13
A database administrator receives a call on an outside telephone line from a person who states that they
work for a well-known database vendor. The caller states there have been problems applying the newly
released vulnerability patch for their database system, and asks what version is being used so that they
can assist. Which of the following is the BEST action for the administrator to take?
A. Thank the caller, report the contact to the manager, and contact the vendor support line to verify any
reported patch issues.
B. Obtain the vendor’s email and phone number and call them back after identifying the number of
systems affected by the patch.
C. Give the caller the database version and patch level so that they can receive help applying the patch.
D. Call the police to report the contact about the database systems, and then check system logs for attack
attempts.
SY0-401 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
An IT security technician is actively involved in identifying coding issues for her company.
Which of the following is an application security technique that can be used to identify unknown
weaknesses within the code?

A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Denial of service
C. Fuzzing
D. Port scanning
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
The systems administrator wishes to implement a hardware-based encryption method that could also be
used to sign code. They can achieve this by:
A. Utilizing the already present TPM.
B. Configuring secure application sandboxes.
C. Enforcing whole disk encryption.
D. Moving data and applications into the cloud.
SY0-401 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to
play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue?
A. Device encryption
B. Application control
C. Content filtering
D. Screen-locks
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which of the following will allow Pete, a security analyst, to trigger a security alert because of a tracking
cookie?
A. Network based firewall
B. Anti-spam software
C. Host based firewall
D. Anti-spyware software
SY0-401 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A system administrator needs to ensure that certain departments have more restrictive controls to their
shared folders than other departments. Which of the following security controls would be implemented to
restrict those departments?
A. User assigned privileges
B. Password disablement
C. Multiple account creation
D. Group based privileges
Correct Answer: D

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