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QUESTION 1
You manage Cisco UCS -Series Rack-Mount Servers. Which three components can you upgrade by using the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility? (Choose three.)
A. the LAN on motherboard
B. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller
C. the operating system images
D. the system BIOS
E. the fabric interconnects
F. the FEX modules
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/lomug/2- 0x/b_huu_2_0_3/b_huu_2_0_3_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can a user with the ext-lan-policy privileges perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure management interfaces on the fabric interconnect.
B. Configure Ethernet pin groups.
C. Configure management interfaces monitoring policy.
D. Create/modify/delete vNIC/vHBA placement policies.
E. Configure DNS providers and DNS domain.
F. Specify the allowed range for virtual MAC addresses.
G. Configure fabric interconnect system name.
H. This privilege has full access to all operations.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 21/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_G uide_1_2 _1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guid e_1_2_1_chapter9.html

QUESTION 4
You must upgrade a Cisco UCS -Series Server. Where must the Cisco UCS bundle image be located before you can begin the upgrade?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller memory of the server
B. a USB drive connected to a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
C. a TFTP server accessible to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
D. the flash file system of the fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware- mgmt/gui/21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/downloading_and_managing_firmware_in _cisco_ucs_mana
ger.html#concept_1923688E7A2E46239DCAE363E4A3DE81

QUESTION 5
From the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which two configurations can be performed for Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Servers from the rack server discovery policy? (Choose two.)
A. Whether the server is discovered immediately or after the acknowledgement of the administrator
B. Defines the scrub policy to be used upon discovery
C. Defines the management IP address to be associated to the server upon discovery
D. Reverts a -Series server from Cisco UCS domain mode to standalone mode
E. Defines the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility ISO file for the rack servers connected to the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 6
An administrator is testing the Cisco Nexus 1000v switch on top of a Cisco UCS Blade. They realize that the test VM traffic is not marked correctly after it leaves the Cisco UCS B- series blade. What is the reason for seeing this behavior?
A. The Cisco UCS does not support QoS marking
B. The Cisco UCS QoS policy applied to the blade has the host control set to “none.”
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches do not support QoS marking.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch QoS marking has not been enabled with “feature gos.”
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?
A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement is true regarding this setup created by this configuration?
A. The NIC bypasses the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets
B. The applications interact directly with the OS Kernel
C. All of the other vNICs in the server are deleted and replaced by the usnic.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computi ng/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b_Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_C SeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco VM-FEX dynamic vNIC configuration and provisioning by using the Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by using SNMP.
B. Dynamic vNIC parameters must be configured manually before the virtual machine connects to its port group.
C. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured dynamically after the assigned virtual machine connects to the port group.
D. Dynamic vNIC parameters are enabled by using the Fibre Channel Forwarder protocol.
E. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by inheriting the port-group parameters of the associated virtual machines.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/ n5k_ops_vmfex.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of a WWN pool are true? (Choose two.)
A. a collection of WWNs for use by the iSCSI interfaces in a Cisco UCS instance
B. a collection of Ethernet MAC addresses assigned to the Ethernet adapters in a Cisco UCS instance
C. a pool of WW port names, where WWPN is the port name assigned to the Fibre Channel port on the adapter
D. a collection of management IP addresses used to connect to servers
E. a pool of WW node names, where WWNN belongs to the node
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 31/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_ chapter22.html

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the purpose of a storage connection policy in Cisco UCS Manager is true?
A. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when vHBAs are configured in a service profile.
B. It defines how zoning is configured for initiators and targets on the fabric interconnect.
C. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when storage devices connect to the fabric interconnects.
D. It defines the number of storage connections that are allowed to connect to the fabric interconnects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which three options are valid system classes for QoS in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose three.)
A. platinum
B. silver
C. best effort
D. voice
E. high-priority
F. FCoE
G. drop eligible
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Based on the output, which statement about the fabric interconnect is true?
A. The fabric interconnect floods multicast traffic in VLAN 100.
B. 10 groups in the fabric interconnect have been configured for VLAN 100 access.
C. After adding VLAN 100, no other changes were made.
D. IGMP snooping was enabled by the admin for VLAN 100.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 3 screenshot of UCS Manager. Which two items are required to configure an IPMI profile? (Choose two.)
A. IPMI Type
B. User
C. Role
D. Locale
E. Administrative State
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111 00.html#d129007e3491a1635

QUESTION 15
Which three options are needed when configuring local zoning on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC switching mode.
B. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC end-host mode.
C. SAN connectivity policy
D. storage connection policy
E. FC target endpoints
F. iSCSI target endpoints
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two factors determine the recommended maximum number of virtual interfaces on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. the number of compute blades in the system
B. the number of interfaces sharing the uplinks
C. the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade
D. the number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2- 0-2/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration/b_UCSM_202_CIntegration_chapter_01.html#reference_7F381038303B4825A CD303765905086A
The number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/Reference- Docs/ConfigurationLimits/31/b_UCS_Configuration_Limits_3_1.html the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade

QUESTION 17
Which three components perform the port extension functions for a Cisco UCS domain? (Choose three.)
A. the multiprotocol port on the Cisco storage
B. the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. the Cisco UCS 2208XP IOMs
D. the Cisco UCS Manager
E. the Cisco Nexus 2232PP FEX
F. the Cisco UCS VIC adapter that has VM-FEX and Adapter FEX technology
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which two policies can specify that a port channel be configured between the fabric extender and fabric interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Chassis or fabric extender discovery policy
B. Rack server discovery policy
C. Rack management connection policy
D. Server inheritance policies
E. Autoconfig policies
F. Chassis connectivity policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 19
Which boot option must be present in the boot policy to have the option to manually boot from the FlexFlash Secure Digital card?
A. any configuration
B. FlexFlash state
C. local disk
D. remote virtual drive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser CardCorrect Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C240M4/install/C240M4 /replace.html

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/apic- management-guide/5-
4/b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_Guide_54b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_G uide_54_chapter_011.html Step 1 On the menu bar, choose Administration > Physical Accounts.
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/raid/configuration/guide/ RAID_GUIDE.pdf

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/oui-for-wwn-and-macs/td- p/1441710
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/when-to-use-wwnn-and- wwpn-pools/tdp/1614344
http://www.vmwareadmins.com/using-a-address-naming-convention-with-cisco-ucs/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MAC_address

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/4 21_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1/Cisco_n5k_nxos_s
answitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1_chapter7.html#con_133799

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-5000-seriesswitches/117690- configure-vmfex-00.html

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 .html

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/smb-technologist/installing-vsphere-on-cisco-ucs-cseries- servers/

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server TroubleshootingCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b _Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_CSeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1 F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link
technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
M81KR (supports many adapters and VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/data_sheet_c78-525049.html M72KR-Q (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-623738.html M71KR-E (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-703582.html P81E (supports many adapters, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ collateral/servers -unified-computing/ucs-c-series- rack-servers/ data_sheet_c78-558230.html M51KR-B (this is not a converged network adapter CNA, and does not support vHBAs)
https:// www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b- series-blade- servers/spec_sheet_c17-644236.pdf

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 1.html

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/confi g_guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_ UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/benefits-to-vpc-on-6200s- fabric-interconnects-inucs/td-p/2086588

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and
IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111
10.html#concept_3735BFD6DA5A49CF90B1B4EEE6BCBF25

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter7.html

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1XCorrect Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins: Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5 D2DA1FC

QUESTION 42
Which option describes the difference between “high-performance” and “none” on a VM- FEX port profile?
A. None is software assisted, and high-performance is software and hardware assisted.
B. None indicates that VM-FEX is not used on this interface, and high-performance indicates that is used.
C. None is used for management profiles, and high-performance is used for mission-critical data profiles.
D. None assumes default scheduling settings for the port profile, and high-performance gives the ports priority in scheduling.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 43
You are configuring integration between the Cisco UCS Manager and the VMware vCenter Server Appliance. Which three actions must you perform from the Cisco Configure VMware Integration Wizard? (Choose three.)
A. Define the virtual machine port profile in the Cisco UCS Manager for virtual machine traffic.
B. Install and register the Cisco UCS Manager extension as a plug-in in the VMware vCenter.
C. Install and register the VMware VM Console plug-in in the Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Apply a port profile (port group) to the virtual machines on the VMware vCenter server.
E. Apply the Firewall Services Module UCS service profile to Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server.
F. Apply a fabric profile to both Cisco Fabric Interconnect uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/2-2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-
FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2_1_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 44
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 4 screenshot of the UCS Manager. Which item can only be configured in the Storage Cloud?
A. iQN Pools
B. Storage FC Clinks
C. Port Channels
D. VSANs
E. Zoning
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucsinfrastructure- ucs-manager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html

QUESTION 45
Which statement about an iSCSI vNIC when it is created with an overlay NIC is true?
A. It can have any VLAN allowed on it.
B. It can be assigned a unique MAC address.
C. It can have a unique pin group assigned to it.
D. It can have only the overlays native VLAN associated to it.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Which backup option must be performed from the Cisco UCS Manager to allow for a system restore?
A. Database backup
B. Logical configuration
C. System configuration
D. Full state
E. All configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter43.html

QUESTION 47
You have chosen to defer updates to service profiles and to schedule updates. Which option do you modify in the maintenance-policy to accomplish this goal?
A. Reboot Policy
B. Schedule
C. Description
D. Other
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two settings are required when utilizing DirectPath I/O? (Choose two.)
A. CPU pinning
B. full memory reservation
C. Set port profile performance to “high”.
D. vCPU pinning
E. VM queue modification
F. adapter profile update
G. Install DirectPath VIB on host.
H. Enable VMQ with the “enable-netadaptervmq” cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 49
When performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager, which backup type must you do to backup locally authenticated users?
A. System configuration
B. All configuration
C. Full State
D. Logical Configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
A service profile is created using vHBAs. What will happen if the profile is applied to a server with a mezzanine card without storage capability?
A. The blade association will fail.
B. The storage adapter will not be visible to the operating system.
C. A virtual storage adapter will be created.
D. A WWNN or a WWPN will be autoselected from the default pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/data-center-blogs/c-series-resolve-service-profile- association-failure-when/ba-p/3103082 https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#topic_4B2EC5A485E54A2893D02A7BB5F 3E039 In addition to any guidelines or recommendations that are specific to policies and pools included in service profiles and service profile
templates, such as the local disk configuration policy, you need to be aware of the following guidelines and recommendations that impact the ability to associate a service profile with a server.

QUESTION 51
Which parameter can be configured during the initial system setup of Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect from the CLI, without restoring the configuration from an existing backup?
A. the server ports, network ports, and storage ports
B. the reserved VLAN IDs
C. the default number of dynamic vNICs
D. standalone mode or cluster mode of the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_0101.html#task_40AC6321816C401EBF1666DB32F6E954

QUESTION 52
Which boot option is recommended for a boot policy because it offers the most service profile mobility within a system?
A. iSCSI boot
B. local disk boot
C. LAN boot
D. SAN boot
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 53
You attempt to perform an ESXi update on a Cisco UCS C250 server, but the update does not recognize the NICs. You must perform the update as quickly as possible. Which step must you do first?
A. Check the UCS compatibility matrix and replace the NIC with a supported one.
B. Reconfigure the NIC ID on the LOM.
C. Update the LOM firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
D. Update the NIC firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/ucs240m3-network- interfaces-missing-on-esxi-5-1u1/td-p/2415392 http://terenceluk.blogspot.com/2011/08/updating-firmware-for-cisco-ucs-c.html

QUESTION 54
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates with the line “pinning server pinning-failure link-down”?
A. Dynamic vNIC Connection
B. Link Protocol
C. Flow Control
D. Network Control
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- 5100-seriesblade-server-chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_010101.html#concept_80DD753607A0427A9874F278E172F2FA

QUESTION 55
Which two options are valid server pool policy qualifications? (Choose two.)
A. server model
B. description
C. user label
D. power group
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 56
Which two constructs allow for configuration of VLANs on specific uplink ports? (Choose two.)
A. LAN pin group
B. adapter policies
C. vNIC templates
D. VLAN manager
E. link profiles
F. VLAN groups
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter17.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter14.html

QUESTION 57
Under which condition can you select the option to “remove” a blade server from within the Cisco UCS Manager?
A. The server has been decommissioned before physical removal.
B. The server has been sent a diagnostic interrupt.
C. The server has been physically removed before decommission.
D. The server has been powered down.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Which policy is used to specify how Cisco UCS Manager should proceed for configuration changes that will have a service impact?
A. host firmware policy
B. maintenance policy
C. local disk policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration.
A. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FCoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapt er_0110.html

QUESTION 60
The system-reserved VLANs within Cisco UCS are 3968 to 4048 by default. Where can a user change the starting value of this range?
A. VLAN manager
B. global policies
C. LAN cloud
D. cannot be changed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 61
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max number of concurrent tasks
B. max changes
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 62
Which statement about fabric failover for Fibre Channel communication is true?
A. You can enable hardware Fibre Channel failover.
B. Cisco UCS load balances Fibre Channel traffic between the two fabrics.
C. You must use a Fibre Channel multipath I/O driver.
D. You do not have to use anything.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/san-multi-pathing-best- practices/td-p/1545645
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/unified-computing- system/116471-configure-npiv-00.html#anc9
https://kb.netapp.com/support/s/article/how-to-verify-windows-fibre-channel-configurations- with-multipathing-io-mpio?language=en_US

QUESTION 63
Which technology makes VM-FEX possible?
A. VXLAN
B. VNTAG
C. VPC
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 64
With Cisco UCS Manager, in which location do you monitor the chassis discovery process?
A. CMC
B. FSM
C. CDP
D. DME
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 011.html

QUESTION 65
You configure a service profile template from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI by using the Create Local Disk Configuration Policy option The No RAID local disk policy mode is selected and the Protect Configuration property is disabled. You
create a service profile that is created from the service profile template. You apply the service profile to a server that has an operating system installed on a RAID-10 volume. Which statement about the server after it is associated to the
service profile is true?A. The server has RAID-0 configured on the local disk.
B. The server has RAID-1 configured on the local disk.
C. The server has the local storage detached.
D. The local disk of the server remains RAID-10.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 66
Which two statements about the provisioning of Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VT-D feature on the ESX host server must be disabled before you can enable VMDirectPath.
B. VM-FEX standard mode is the same as VM-FEX high-performance mode.
C. Enabling high performance turns on VMDirectPath mode.
D. VMDirectPath mode prevents the use of VMware vMotion.
E. To use Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode, a virtual machine must have a dynamic vNIC and two static vNICs on the VIC adapter.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center- virtualization/unifiedcomputing/vm_fex_best_practices_deployment_guide.html

QUESTION 67
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/bladeservers/install/B200.html

QUESTION 68
When deploying a dynamic FCoE topology using ECMP, what ancillary technology is used?
A. Fabricpath
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/datacenter/what-is-dynamic-fcoe

QUESTION 69
Which maintenance action releases the assigned chassis ID for future use?
A. Acknowledge chassis
B. Reset CMOS
C. Decommission chassis
D. Remove chassis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/22/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/managing_the_chassis.html#task_EB93895D63664D86ACDE9D13C222A452

QUESTION 70
Which of the following supports more than two component-resident versions of firmware?
A. mezzanine adapters
B. I/O modules
C. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
D. CIMCs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/110511-ucs-fw-mgmt-00.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/FirmwareMgmt/31/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_G
UI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_011.html#task_C8E850B883D741BFBEF 0FBBA409C6CB7

QUESTION 71
Which two parameters are used by Cisco UCS for automatic Fibre Channel uplink pinning?
A. server WWN
B. MDS WWNN
C. VSAN membership
D. hash algorithm
E. vHBA MAC address
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapter_011000.html https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/
sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010110.html#task_2F3F6BFFC4384A2F8809492F9DE8FD23

QUESTION 72
Which four physical connections on a fabric interconnect are needed to perform the initial system setup for a cluster configuration? (Choose four.)
A. Ethernet uplink ports connected to upstream switch
B. console port connected to a computer terminal or console server.
C. Layer 1 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
D. Layer 1 port of the first fabric interconnect connected to Layer 2 port of the second fabric interconnect
E. Layer 2 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
F. Fibre Channel uplink ports connected to upstream fabric switch
G. management Ethernet port (mgmt0) connected to external switch or router
H. port channel to each fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: BCEG
Explanation

QUESTION 73
Which policy determines what happens to local disks when they are disassociated from a service profile?
A. maintenance policy
B. local disk policyC. scrub policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 74
Which two components can be specified in a host firmware package? (Choose two.)
A. CPU
B. BIOS
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
D. LOM
E. DIMM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 75
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 76
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which log would you view to determine which UCS Manager user modified a Service Profile?
A. Events
B. Audit
C. Syslog
D. SEL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101101.html

QUESTION 77
Which three parameters can be configured for a vHBA? (Choose three.)
A. Enable persistent binding.B. Enable a hardware-based failover.
C. Define a SAN pin group
D. Assign a QoS policy.
E. Define an MTU.
F. Assign a MAC address.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/21/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110 10.html

QUESTION 78
While configuring communication between vCenter and Cisco UCS, which two items are contained in the extension file? (Choose two.)
A. extension key
B. plug-in version information
C. SSL private certificate
D. Cisco UCS Manager SSL public certificate
E. SSH public key
F. Cisco UCS Manager admin credentials
G. IP address of the hosts utilizing VM link
H. vCenter SSL public certificate
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are a result of utilizing org permissions on VLANs within a sub- org? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs can be defined only once globally.
B. VLAN IDs can be defined within each sub-org.
C. VLAN name must match across orgs and sub-orgs.
D. VLAN name can be different per sub-org.
E. Sub-org vNICs can utilize parent org VLANs.
F. Parent org vNICs can utilize sub-org VLANs.
G. Sub-org vNICs can utilize only parent org native VLANs.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 80
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. Which item is true about Boot Order in Cisco UCS – Series Rack Servers?
A. Boot order configured in the BIOS will not be reflected in the Cisco IMC GUI.
B. Boot options should not be disabled in the BIOS.
C. The Boot Order set in the BIOS does not override the Cisco IMC.
D. Boot Order should only be configured in the Cisco IMC GUI.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
Which command sequence in the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server CLI sends tech support data to a TFTP server?
A. ucs-c250 / # scope cimc
ucs-c250 /cimc # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# commit
B. ucs-c250 / # scope system
ucs-c250 /system # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# commit
C. ucs-c250 / # scope support
ucs-c250 /support # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# commit
D. ucs-c250 / # scope fault
ucs-c250 /fault # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# commit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_1_1_2_chapter13.html#task_551DFD0E88124951A54DC305C29F7F7C This example creates a support data file and transfers the file to a TFTP server:
Server# scope cimc
Server /cimc # scope tech-support
Server /cimc/tech-support # set tftp-ip 10.20.30.41 Server /cimc/tech-support *# set path /user/user1/supportfile Server /cimc/tech-support *# commit Server /cimc/tech-support # start Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/

QUESTION 82
Which four Cisco UCS components use the Cisco NX-OS syslog services to generate syslog entries for system information and alerts? (Choose four.)
A. I/O module
B. fabric interconnect
C. chassis
D. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
E. Cisco UCS Manager
F. adapter
G. Ethernet uplink
H. storage moduleCorrect Answer: ADEF
Explanation

QUESTION 83
Which statement about the Cisco Integrated Management Controller configuration utility for Cisco UCS CSeries servers is true?
A. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports SSL3 and HTLM5.
B. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports HTTP and Microsoft Silverlight.
C. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco In Management Controller to use a static IP address only.
D. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco Integrated Management Controller to use a static IP address or an IP address from DHCP
E. When the IP address is configured in BIOS, you can point a Web browser to the configured IP address to open the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c200-m1-high- density-rack-mountserver/111455-setup-cimc-c-series.html

QUESTION 84
You have been tasked with performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager that can be used to restore the system during disaster recovery. Which type of backup must you perform?
A. System configuration
B. Full state
C. All configuration
D. Logical configuration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/AdminManagement/31/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Ad
min_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_01001.html#task_C1FFA04FACF24B818316B802FC11E B19

QUESTION 85
Which Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is capable of RAID 5?
A. B200
B. B250
C. B230
D. B440
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B200 2 Bays
B250 2 Bays
B230 2 BaysB440 4 Bays
The only server that could possibly support RAID 5 is the B440 Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5 RAID 5 requires at least 3 disks.

QUESTION 86
Which two parameters must be configured on a standalone Cisco UCS C-Series Server to export the technical support data to a remote server? (Choose two)
A. Specify a remote TFTP server IP address.
B. Install a certificate
C. Install an FTP server
D. Set the source as the UCS server IP address.
E. Specify the remote relative path and file name.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_Cisco_UCS_Cseries_GUI_Configuration_Guide_201.pdf

QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tables correctly map the HIF ports to active FEX NIF ports on a Cisco UCS 2208X IOM in discrete pinning mode?
A. Table 2 and Table 4
B. Table 1 and T able 4
C. Table 2 and Table 3
D. Table 1 and Table 2
E. Table 3 and Table 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/guide/UCSTroubleshooting/ UCSTr oubleshooting_chapter_01001.html

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.
Boot Uption #1
Internal EFI Shell
SATA: HL-DT-STDVDRAM GT40N
IBA GE Slot 1600 v1335
Cisco Virtual FDD/HDD 1.22
(Bus 12 Dev 00) PCI RAID Adapter
Disabled
Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?
A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot optionC. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which options is the only supported link aggregation protocol on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Multipath
B. PagP
C. FLOGI
D. LACP
E. FCOE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
UCS port channel configuration is statically set to Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) mode active. This configuration cannot be modified; therefore, all upstream port- channel configurations must adhere to LACP mode active as well.
Alternatively, you can configure the upstream switchports for LACP mode passive.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/116095-configure-ucsupstream-port-channel-00.html

QUESTION 90
Which two AAA protocols are supported by a remote AAA database? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_FAA777771F5D4F14A82A479CE D0D4AF 4
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Which statement is true regarding the port channel 100 and 101 configurations between the Nexus 7010 switches?
A. The vPC assignments on N7010-C2 are incorrectly swapped
B. N7010-C1 is not allowing any active VLAN traffic to pass on Po100 and Po101.
C. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
D. The vPC peer-keepalive is down between the two Nexus 7000 switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. What is the problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are attempting to configure boot from SAN on your server that is attached to a Cisco MDS 9148 Fibre Channel switch. What is a possible issue that may occur?
A. Check the status of the licenses on the Fibre Channel switch.
B. NPV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
C. NPIV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
D. Boot from SAN is not supported via the Fibre Channel protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When you ping your new Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, you see this output:
!!…!!…!!…!!…!!…
What could be the problem?
A. Traffic may be taking a bad route through the network.
B. HSRP is flapping.
C. CoPP is rate-limiting the pings.
D. The switch has high CPU utilization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why do the lists not contain the same switches, after you issue the commands show cfs peers name and show cfs merge status?
A. The merge cannot occur until the VSAN IDs are synched.
B. The Cisco Fabric Services fabric has a physical port fault that should be investigated.
C. The fabric is partitioned into multiple Cisco Fabric Services fabrics.
D. Cisco Fabric Services need to be restarted to see the new switches.
E. A Cisco Fabric Services database lock has prevented the merge.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of an OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otv aed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv vlan on any edge devices in the site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator sets up a FabricPath network. The administrator tries to ping between two SVI interfaces on the leaf switches 10 and 20, but it fails. What caused the pings to fail?
A. Switches S10 and S20 do not have F2 modules.
B. The vPC peer gateway must be enabled on switches S10 and S20.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 should be interconnected directly.
D. VLAN 10 is not enabled on the spine switches (S1, S2, and S3).
E. Layer 3 over a vPC+ peer link is not supported.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in the local site? (Choose two.)
A. show otv overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch will show the interface information for port 10 on the connected FEX 100?
A. show interface Ethernet 100/10
B. show fex 100 interface Ethernet 1/10
C. show interface Ethernet 100/1/10
D. show interface Ethernet 1/100/10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are three situations that may cause an ISSU failure? (Choose three.)
A. A module is removed while the upgrade is in progress.
B. A proper ISSU license is not in place.
C. The device has a power disruption while the upgrade is in progress.
D. A line card is in a failure state.
E. The specified system and kickstart images are not compatible.
F. The management interface is not in the correct VRF.G. The secondary supervisor is not installed.
H. The redundancy force-switchover command was used during the ISSU.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
Which command helps to determine if there are any conflicts in the network with respect to a FabricPath configuration?
A. show licenses
B. show fabricpath conflict
C. show fabricpath conflict all
D. switchport mode fabricpath
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer’s representatives want to know how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command is
useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issu test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding trunking on an ISL between two switches in order for the VSAN to be trunked? (Choose three.)
A. The VSAN must be defined on both switches.
B. The VSAN must be on the VSAN allowed list.
C. All VSANs that are being trunked must be using either enhanced or non-enhanced mode zoning, but not both.
D. IVR must be configured for Cisco Fabric Services.
E. The device alias database must successfully merge.
F. There cannot be any duplicate domain IDs within an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator is deploying FCoE; however, a VFC interface will not come up. The administrator executes the commandshow platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc and displays the output.
What is the problem?
A. An incorrect VSAN number is being used.
B. The connected host does not support FIP.
C. FCoE is not enabled.
D. Priority flow control is not being negotiated with the converged network adapter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You receive a priority 1 trouble ticket that there is OSPF route instability in the data center core Cisco Nexus 7018 Switches. Which command is useful to help validate a theory that hello packets are being throttled?
A. N7018# show class-map interface control-plane
B. N7018# show policy-map interface control-plane
C. N7018# show service-policy interface control-plane
D. N7018# show copp status
E. N7018# show copp statistics
F. N7018# show control-plane class copp-system-class-critical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have enabled configuration synchronization between two Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switches. You create a port channel on switch 1 and determine that it was not synchronized with its peer. The peer switch can be pinged on the
management VRF. When you check your peer status, you receive a “peer not reachable” message in the command output. What is the explanation for this?
A. CDP is disabled.
B. An LACP mismatch exists on the peer interfaces.
C. UDLD is disabled.
D. CFSoIP is disabled.
E. Multicast routing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
While troubleshooting HSRP adjacency, a packet analyzer captures the remote packet with the information: IP 224.0.0.102 with a MAC address of 0000.0C9F.0256. The DCI local group number is 256.
Which solution resolves the problem?
A. Request that the remote data center change the HSRP version to V1.
B. Report the issue as a suspected bug because the group number is correct based on the analyzer.
C. Request that the remote data center verifies that they do not have an HSRP password configured.
D. Request that the remote data center to use the correct HSRP group number.
E. Change the local HSRP version to V1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in all sites in the overlay? (Choose two.)A. show otv adjacency overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 27
To ensure that DCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A customer calls you to report that it receives an error when entering the pinning max-links 4 command in FEX configuration mode on its Cisco Nexus 5596T Switch. Which of these is a likely cause for this condition?
A. The FEX fabric interface is down.
B. The transceiver is incorrect.
C. A fabric interface is in a port channel.
D. The fabric interface switchport mode is set to Access.
E. Only two fabric interfaces are connected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
NPV mode is not operating properly on a Cisco Nexus or Cisco MDS Series Switch. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. An uplink NP port is stuck initializing.
B. The VSAN does not match at each end of the connection.
C. The VLAN does not match at each end of the connection.
D. The license is invalid.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about configuring NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only F, E, and SD ports are supported in NPV mode.
B. Only targets can be connected to an NPV device.
C. Distribute the NPV core switch links to different port groups for improved scalability.
D. If DPVM is configured on the NPV core switch for an end device that is connected to the NPV device, then that end device must be configured to be in the same VSAN.
E. NPV does not support NPIV-capable module servers (nested NPIV).
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 32
When using a Cisco Nexus 5500 and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, how can a port channel interface be configured?
A. Layer 3 interface
B. Layer 3 interface in non-admin VDC only
C. Layer 3 interface in admin VDC only
D. Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which two commands can you issue on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch to determine which interfaces are connected to fabric extenders? (Choose two.)
A. show fex-fabric interface
B. show fex
C. show fex fex-id
D. show fex interface
E. show fex detail
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues cause a problem with the implementation of an OTV between data centers? (Choose two.)
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 35
The traffic across your port channels seems to be favoring one link over the other. How can you adjust the load-balancing policy to include source and destination MAC addresses, IP address, and TCP port?
A. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
B. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
C. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
D. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
What is the cause of the ISSU failure when using the command show system internal csm global info?
A. The command conf-t is holding a lock and not released it.
B. The SSN feature is not enabled on both switches.
C. The reference count is less than 1 due to a lack of successful config-sync.
D. It cannot be determined from the output.
E. An Administrator is logged in on another session and has a lock of the session data base to prevent ISSU.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two commands are used to determine the CoPP profile used on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series? (Choose two.)
A. #show copp profile
B. #show copp diff profile
C. #show copp status
D. #show running-config copp
E. #show policy-map interface control-plane
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 38
The installation of a new OTV network connecting two data centers via a service provider LAN has failed verification steps. Which statement explains why certain types of data are not being successfully transferred across the OTV network?
A. The number of extended VLANs across all configured overlays may be greater than 256.
B. The number of MAC addresses on either edge device may exceed 4000.
C. The additional 42-byte OTV overhead, along with the DF bit being set, may cause the service provider to drop packets based on their 1500 MTU settings.
D. Having more than two edge devices per site is not supported.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
FCoE traffic from C200-1 on VSAN 13 is not being switched through the network. Which statement explains the cause of the problem?
A. The LAN switchport on N5K2 must be configured as a trunk.
B. VLAN 1013 on N5K2 is not allowed on the LAN.
C. The vFC on N5K2 that is associated with VSAN 13 is in the wrong port mode.
D. The M1 card on the Nexus 7000 switch does not support FCoE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 41
There is an ARP storm in VDC 1. Some users on VDC 2 notice that ARP is not resolving for their gateway on the Cisco Nexus core. What is the cause?
A. The ARP CoPP class committed information rate is exceeded, resulting in ARP loss in all VDCs.
B. The administrator has not correctly configured the ARP CoPP class in VDC 2.
C. The ARP traffic in VDC 1 is copied to the host ports in VDC 2, causing overutilization and output discards.
D. Because the ARP process in the default VDC (VDC 1) is responsible for processing ARP traffic for all VDCs, VDC 2 will be affected.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
A customer reports that a 10-Gb interface between a Cisco Nexus 7009 Switch and a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch is not passing traffic. The Nexus 7009 interface indicates up/up. The Nexus 5548UP interface indicates up/down. Which
feature should you enable to help isolate the root cause?
A. CDP
B. GOLD
C. UDLD
D. DAI
E. LACP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which three commands will help an administrator identify any issues with an In-Service Software Upgrade? (Choose three.)
A. show cts interface
B. show incompatibility system
C. show license file
D. show install impact all
E. show lacp issu-impact
F. show install issu-failure
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
t has been determined that unknown unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic is not correctly being switched through either Nexus 7010 switch. Which statement best describes the cause of this issue?
A. No VLANs are allowed across the vPC peer link.
B. The MST STP is not enabled on either switch.
C. The default VLAN is inactive.
D. VTP is not configured to handle this type of traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
You receive an error attempting to enable the vPC feature on a Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch. Which Cisco Fabric Services distribution must be operational before the feature can be enabled?
A. CFSoFC
B. CFSoIP
C. CFSoV
D. CFSoE
E. CFSoM
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 72
A seller’s price is below an appropriate measure of casts. Moreover, the seller has a reasonable prospect of recovering the resulting loss in the future through higher prices or a greater market share. Accordingly, the seller has engaged in:
A. Collusive pricing.
B. Dumping.
C. Predatory pricing.
D. Price discrimination.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is intentionally pricing below cost to eliminate competition and reducesupply. Federal statutes and many state laws prohibit the practice. The U.S.
Supreme Courthas held that pricing is predatory when two conditions are met: 1) the seller’s price is belowan appropriate measure of its costs,” and 2) it has a reasonable prospect of recovering theresulting IOSS through higher prices or greater market share.

QUESTION 73
In which product-mix pricing strategy is it appropriate for the seller to accept any price that exceeds the storage and deliver} casts for the product?
A. By-product pricing.
B. Optional-product pricing.
C. Captive-product pricing.
D. Product-bundle pricing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A by-product is a product of relatively minor importance generated during the production ofone or more other products. Its production entails no additional costs. Any amount receivedabove the storage and delivery. casts for a by-product allows the seller to reduce the mainproduct’s price to make it more competitive.

QUESTION 74
Several surveys paint out that most managers use full product casts, including unit fixed casts and unit variable costs, in developing cast-based pricing. Which one of the following is least associated with cost-based pricing?
A. Price stability.
B. Price justification.
C. Target pricing.
D. Fixed-cost recovery.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A target price is the expected market price of a product, given the company’s knowledge ofits customers and competitors. Hence, under target pricing, the sales price is known beforethe product is developed. Subtracting the unit target profit margin determines the long-termunit target cast. If cost- cutting measures do not permit the product to be made at or below thetarget cast, it will be abandoned.

QUESTION 75
Fulford Company applies the target pricing and costing approach. The following information about costs and revenues of Fulford’s product are available for the year just ended: Fulford plans to increase unit sales to 80,000 by reducing the product’s unit price to US $320. If Fulford desires a unit target operating income of 12CYo, by what amount must it reduce the full cost per unit?
A. US $32.00
B. US $38.40
C. US $70.40
D. US $80.00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unit target operating income is US $38.40 $320 unit target price 12°X0). Hence, the unittarget full cost is US $281.60 $320 – $38.40). The current full cost per unit is US $352.00[($13,200,000 CGS + $7,920,000 other value chain operating costs) – 60,000 units sold], sothe necessary reduction in the full cost per unit is US $70.40 $352.00 – $281.60).

QUESTION 76
A company’s product has an expected 4-year life cycle from research, development, and design through its withdrawal from the market. Budgeted costs are: The company plans to produce 200,000 units and price the product at 125°!a of the wholelife unit cost. Thus, the budgeted unit selling price is:
A. US $15
B. US $31
C. US $36
D. US $45
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whole-life costs include after-purchase costs operating, support, repair, and disposal)incurred by customers as well as life-cycle costs R&D, design, manufacturing, marketing,distribution, and research). Hence, the budgeted unit whole-life cost is US $36 [($2,000,000+ $3,000,000 + $1,200,000 + $1,000,000) – 200,000 units], and the budgeted unit sellingprice is US $45 $36 125CYo).

QUESTION 77
A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible cost. The company is pursuing a cost:
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost focus strategy aims at cost leadership in a particular segment, such as a regionalmarket or a specialty product line. The rationale for a focus strategy is that the narrowermarket can be better served.

QUESTION 78
The dominant firm in a market pursues a market-leader strategy. This strategy may involve
A. Holding the market stable to avoid attracting new competitors.
B. A flank defense to strengthen the firm’s brand.
C. Sending market signals as a mobile defense.
D. Innovations as an offensive strategy.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Constant innovation to improve products and services, control costs, and increase distributioneffectiveness is the basis for a good offensive strategy. The leader must continuouslyimprove the value offered to customers.

QUESTION 79
During the growth stage of a product’s life cycle,
A. The quality of products is poor.
B. New product models and features are introduced.
C. There is little difference between competing products.
D. The quality of the products becomes more variable and products are less differentiated.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the growth stage, sales and profits increase rapidly, cost per customer decreases, customersare early adopters, new competitors enter an expanding market, new product models andfeatures are introduced, and promotion spending declines or remains stable. The firm entersnew market segments and distribution channels and attempts to build brand loyalty andachieve the maximum share of the market. Thus, prices are set to penetrate the market,distribution channels are extended, and the mass market is targeted through advertising. Thestrategy is to advance by these means and by achieving economies of productive scale.

QUESTION 80
In a product’s life cycle, the first symptom of the decline stage is a decline in the:
A. Firm’s inventory levels.
B. Product’s sales.
C. Product’s production cost.
D. Product’s prices.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sales of most product types and brands eventually decrease permanently. This declinemay be slow or rapid. This first symptom of the decline stage of a product’s life cycle triggerssuch other effects as price cutting, narrowing of the product line, and reduction in promotionbudgets.

QUESTION 81
At the introduction stage of an innovative product, the profit growth is normally slow due to:
A. Expensive sales promotion.
B. High competition.
C. A mass market.
D. Available alternatives.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The introduction stage is characterized by slow sales growth and lack of profits because ofthe high expenses of promotion and selective distribution to generate awareness of theproduct and encourage customers to try it. Thus, the per-customer cost is high. Competitorsare few, basic versions of the product are produced, and higher-income customersinnovators) are usually targeted. Cost-plus prices are charged. They may initially be high topermit cost recovery when unit sales are low. The strategy is to infiltrate the market, plan forfinancing to cope with losses, build supplier relations, increase production and marketingefforts, and plan for competition.

QUESTION 82
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the price charged on a consistent basis for a specific product would probably be lowest during which life cycle stage?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the maturity stage, competition is at its greatest and costs are at their lowest. Moreover, firms are engaged in competitive price-cutting measures, resulting in some of thelowest prices seen during a product’s life cycle.

QUESTION 83
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the opportunity for cost reductions would be greatest in which stage of the life cycle?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the growth stage, the opportunity for cost reductions is at its maximum becauseproduction volume is increasing at a high rate. Thus, fixed costs are being
spread over moreunits of production, and the benefits of the learning curve are being realized.

QUESTION 84
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. The manager has asked the auditor for advice about increasing advertising of various products. During which stage of the life cycle would it be appropriate to advertise that the company’s product is the lowest price and best quality of all competitors?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maturity stage is the ideal time for advertising lower prices and superior quality becausethis is the period during a product’s life when competition is greatest. Due to the availabilityof many alternatives or substitutes, a firm has reasons to set itself apart. Because price andquality are both concerns of customers during the maturity stage, it is ideal for the firm todifferentiate its product by advertising low prices and higher quality.

QUESTION 85
A firm buys like-new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is:
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market

D. Operating in a black market.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying tomake a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, theseller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

QUESTION 86
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When thesubsidiary-buyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potentialtariffs. However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower becauseof its higher acquisition cost.

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?
A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B. It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C. It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D. It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E. It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F. It supports non-IP protocols.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
QUESTION 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
QUESTION 8 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But you don’t have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time. # echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤ when System Reboot on next time, etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file /etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter. net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
QUESTION 10 CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it’s giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window System.

300-209 exam Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)./tmp is full ornotQuota is already reachedVideo card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary filequota username ¨¤ if quota is alread reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤ you can pass the
Kernel Argument from boot loader.Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card, resolution etc.Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network’s Host?
300-209 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254 OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
QUESTION 12 CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

12. mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 13 CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from allservers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from otherhost configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS=”-m 0 -r” Where
-m 0 disables ‘MARK’ messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
QUESTION 14 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:Boot the System on Single user mode.Change the passwordCheck the account expire date by using chage -l root command. If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 15 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤ What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
QUESTION 16  Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 20 CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 21 CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question No : 9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
400-251 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client

B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
400-251 dumps
A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION NO: 17
On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User’s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
400-251 exam Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Cascade product runs under Riverbed Service Platform (RSP)?
A.
Sensor-VE
B.Gateway-VE
C.
Express RSP
D.
Pilot
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
From Cascade Pilot, reports may include:
A. One or all views from the main workspace.
B. Notes entered associated with a view.
C. Analyst and Client information entered.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question No : 21 To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)
A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts
400-251 pdf 
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 22 What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?
A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 23  Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)
A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company
400-251 vce 
Answer: A,B
Question No : 24 Where do you define the mandatory attributes for a vendor?
A. Organizational plan
B. Vendor group
C. Product category
D. Business partner (vendor)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26  What is used for downloading product categories from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. CRM Middleware
B. ALE Distribution
C. Transaction COMM_HIERARCHY
D. Transaction BBPGETVD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27 What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP.
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 28  What do you activate to enable the administrator troubleshooting issues related to SRM objects (for example, shopping carts, purchase orders)?
A. Business transaction event (BTE)
B. Administrator console
C. Objects for synchronization
D. Application monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 29  Requisitions were transferred from ECC 6.0 EhP04 to SRM 7.0 using SOA, but are missing from the sourcing work list. Which transaction in SRM can you use to troubleshoot this
problem?
A. SLG1
B. WE05
C. SXMB_MONI
D. BD87
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30  Your customer would like to use vendor and purchasing organization to determine the backend system for follow-on documents. What is a valid solution for this requirement?
A. This is not possible in the standard system and requires a modification.
B. Since SAP SRM 7.0 you can define this on the function tab of the purchasing
organization within the organizational plan.
C. Maintain the customizing table Define Backend Systems respectively.
D. Use the respective Business Add-In (BAdI) and implement a specific coding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 31 During testing you discover that a confirmation created in SAP SRM did not generate a goods receipt posting in SAP ERP as expected.
Which transaction could be used to troubleshoot this problem?
A. BBP_BW_SC2
B. SXMB_MONI
C. SMQ2
D. WE05
QUESTION NO: 32
Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select “Apply with Filter”.
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
400-251 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
400-251 dumps Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

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Question: 34
As an HR Professional you must recognize and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affect your performance as an HR Professional. What term describes the illegal agreement of the management to give an individual a job, as long as the person does not join or be involved with a labor union?
A. Yellow dog contract
B. Scab
C. Shill contract
D. Non-union agreement
810-403 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A yellow dog contract is an agreement between management and an individual that gives a person a job as long as the person does not join a union. The Norris-LaGuardia Act prohibited federal courts from enforcing yellow dog contracts. Answer option B is incorrect. A scab is a derogatory term assigned to a person who will cross a picket line to work for an organization experiencing a strike by workers. Answer option C is incorrect. A shill contract is not a valid term. Answer option D is incorrect. A non-union agreement is not a valid term for this scenario.

Question: 35
Which one of the following presents the seven stages of internal consulting in the correct order?
A. Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
B. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
C. Gathering agreement to the project plan, Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
D. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
810-403 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The seven stages of internal consulting are as follows:
1.Exploring the situation
2.Gathering agreement to the project plan
3.Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings
4.Developing recommendations
5.Presenting the findings and recommendations
6.Implementing
7.Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option A is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting.

Question: 36
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages or benefits, to men and women who perform substantially equal work for the same employer, in the same establishment, and under similar working conditions. The law defined substantial equality of job content on four factors. Which one of the following is not one of the four factors this law defines?
A. Effort
B. Working conditions
C. Skill
D. Education
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 defines the substantial equality of job contents based on skills, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Skill, effort, and working conditions are defined as part of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Question: 37
Which of the following is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Employee self-assessment
C. Performance management
D. Supervisory training
810-403 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance management is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively. Performance management includes activities to ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
Answer option D is incorrect. Supervisory training generally involves topics related to interactions with employees, such as performance management, progressive discipline, performance appraisals, workplace safety, and training.
 Answer option A is incorrect. Performance appraisal is a structure for documenting individual performance. Performance appraisal can contribute to productive relationships between employees and their supervisors. Answer option B is incorrect. Employee self-assessment process is meant to be a two-way conversation. In this process, employees are asked to assess their own performance as part of the appraisal.
Question: 38
Which of the following are established by Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees
B. Minimum wage requirement
C. Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
D. Health insurance requirement
Answer: B, C, and A
Explanation:
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 established the following:
Minimum wage requirement Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees Answer option D is incorrect. Health insurance requirement are not established by FLSA.
Question: 39
You are completing a Form I-9 with a newly hired employee. Which one of the following documents is not allowed as a proof of identity and employment eligibility for the newly hired employee?
A. Driver’s license
B. Expired US passport
C. Certificate of naturalization
D. Unexpired reentry permit
810-403 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
A driver’s license is a document that is acceptable to establish identity, but it is not acceptable as a document that confirms eligibility of employment. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An expired US passport, certificate of naturalization, and unexpired reentry permit are legitimate documents for the proof of employment eligibility and for identity.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 129:
STPs connect to ________ over A links.
A. The 800 database
B. Calling name data bases
C. Each other
D. Switches
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 130:
Common channel signal packets are exchanged using:
A. Routers.
B. Bridges.
C. STPs.
D. Switching processors.
Answer: C
QUESTION 131:
The national architecture that uses SS7 to provide services such as calling name
display is called the:
A. Integrated Services Digital Network.
B. Superior Signaling Network.
C. Advanced Intelligent Network.
D. National Advanced Information Infrastructure.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 132:
The terminating switch sends a query to a database asking for a subscriber name
using:
A. Advanced MF signaling.
B. ISDN Q.931 signaling.

C. SS7 messaging.
D. AIN address signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
The process of connecting one input to another for a period of time is:
A. Switching.
B. Transmission.
C. Bridging.
D. Routing.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 134:
The three basic functions of switches are concentration, _______ and expansion
A. Transmission
B. Signaling
C. Addressing
D. Distribution
Answer: D
QUESTION 135:
OAM&P capabilities include translations, testing, provisioning, and one other very
important function called:
A. Switching.
B. Billing.
C. Conversion.
D. Detection.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 136:
Step by step switches operated on:
A. Touchtone signals.
B. A single digit at each switch.
C. 110 volts AC power.

D. A millisecond switching cycle.
Answer: B
QUESTION 137:
The switches in a crossbar type switching system are at the intersection of:
A. Vertical and horizontal bars.
B. Streets and avenues.
C. Vertical and horizontal transistors.
D. Up and down magnets.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 138:
Time division switching stages are a characteristic of:
A. Analog stored program control switches.
B. Digital stored program control switches.
C. Signal transfer points.
D. Crossbar switching systems.
Answer: B
QUESTION 139:
DS0s within a DS1 or higher are switched in a:
A. Add-drop multiplexer.
B. Space-division switch.
C. Time-division multiplexed switch.
D. Crossbar switch.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 140:
The basic components of the time division switch are control logic, a buffer and:
A. Crosspoint switch.
B. Time-slot counter.
C. Memory.
D. Input/output.

Answer: B
QUESTION 141:
A space-division stage:
A. Uses a crosspoint switch.
B. Uses a buffer memory.
C. Switches time slots within a DS1.
D. Is not used in a digital switch.
210-260 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 142:
A digital switch is made up of the network fabric and:
A. Signaling processor.
B. Signal transfer point.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Control.
Answer: A
QUESTION 143:
Time-division switches and __________ make up the switching fabric of a digital
switch.
A. Signaling processors
B. Crossbar switches
C. Control processors
D. Space-division switches
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 144:
Optical switching are not currently used because:
A. Crossbar systems are less expensive.
B. Optical switches lack required OAM&P features.
C. Optical switching methodologies are still experimental.
D. Of difficulties in conversion between electrical and optical signals.

Answer: C
QUESTION 145:
Important considerations in justifying deployment of new telecommunications
technology include ________, revenue enhancement, security and regulation.
A. ITU standard migration
B. Teleconferencing
C. Cost reduction
D. Internet telephony
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Consideration of multiple styles of people interacting via telecommunications should
result in:
A. An increase in the software content of the solution.
B. Multiple solutions to identified needs.
C. Discarding solutions which serve a small percentage of customers.
D. More versatile call centers with Internet connectivity.
Answer: D
QUESTION 147:
You have business continuity as a means of improving security in the CO. What is
the second concern you should address?
A. Employee education
B. Reporting processes
C. Intrusion detection
D. Hackers
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 148:
You have identified intrusion detection as a means of improving security. What is
the second concern in regards to telephony?
A. Identifying threats
B. Identifying common attacks on the CO

C. Identifying common vulnerabilities in systems
D. Identifying business continuity concerns
Answer: D
QUESTION 149:
What does a traffic table enable you to do?
A. Determine the number of necessary lines.
B. Determine the number of customers served.
C. Determine the number of available lines.
D. Determine the number of connections made over a period of time.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 150:
Which of the following helps you determine the number of necessary lines?
A. A line matrix
B. Service criteria
C. A traffic table
D. A connectivity map
Answer: C
QUESTION 151:
Erlang B extended is used when:
A. Blocked calls are queued.
B. Blocked calls are denied.
C. Blocked calls result in customer retries.
D. Blocked calls go to a “call back later” announcement.
210-260 vce Answer:
QUESTION 152:
What type of signal is exchanged between computer networks?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Network
D. Stand-alone

Answer: A
QUESTION 153:
What is the most common transmission type for low-speed data communications?
A. Encoded digital
B. Encoded analog
C. Unencoded digital
D. Unencoded analog
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 154:
What kind of equipment are modems and CSU/DSUs?
A. Hosts
B. Terminals
C. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. Data communications equipment (DCE)
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
1.If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B
3.Exhibit.

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
300-135 dumps Answer: AD
4.You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
 new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B
5.Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
300-135 pdf Answer: D
6.Exhibit.

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C
7.What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
300-135 vce Answer: CD
8.Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C
9.You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
300-135 exam Answer: B
10.You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set D.
only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

11.You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference C.
apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity D.
apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
300-135 dumps Answer: A

12.Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B
13.You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
300-135 pdf Answer: C
14.Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve C.
Difference D.
Color Burn
Answer: A
15.When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers. D.
It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
300-135 vce Answer: D

16.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
17.Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
300-135 exam Correct:B C D
18.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
19.Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
300-135 dumps Correct:B
20.Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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