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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(72-86)

QUESTION 72
A seller’s price is below an appropriate measure of casts. Moreover, the seller has a reasonable prospect of recovering the resulting loss in the future through higher prices or a greater market share. Accordingly, the seller has engaged in:
A. Collusive pricing.
B. Dumping.
C. Predatory pricing.
D. Price discrimination.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is intentionally pricing below cost to eliminate competition and reducesupply. Federal statutes and many state laws prohibit the practice. The U.S.
Supreme Courthas held that pricing is predatory when two conditions are met: 1) the seller’s price is belowan appropriate measure of its costs,” and 2) it has a reasonable prospect of recovering theresulting IOSS through higher prices or greater market share.

QUESTION 73
In which product-mix pricing strategy is it appropriate for the seller to accept any price that exceeds the storage and deliver} casts for the product?
A. By-product pricing.
B. Optional-product pricing.
C. Captive-product pricing.
D. Product-bundle pricing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A by-product is a product of relatively minor importance generated during the production ofone or more other products. Its production entails no additional costs. Any amount receivedabove the storage and delivery. casts for a by-product allows the seller to reduce the mainproduct’s price to make it more competitive.

QUESTION 74
Several surveys paint out that most managers use full product casts, including unit fixed casts and unit variable costs, in developing cast-based pricing. Which one of the following is least associated with cost-based pricing?
A. Price stability.
B. Price justification.
C. Target pricing.
D. Fixed-cost recovery.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A target price is the expected market price of a product, given the company’s knowledge ofits customers and competitors. Hence, under target pricing, the sales price is known beforethe product is developed. Subtracting the unit target profit margin determines the long-termunit target cast. If cost- cutting measures do not permit the product to be made at or below thetarget cast, it will be abandoned.

QUESTION 75
Fulford Company applies the target pricing and costing approach. The following information about costs and revenues of Fulford’s product are available for the year just ended: Fulford plans to increase unit sales to 80,000 by reducing the product’s unit price to US $320. If Fulford desires a unit target operating income of 12CYo, by what amount must it reduce the full cost per unit?
A. US $32.00
B. US $38.40
C. US $70.40
D. US $80.00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unit target operating income is US $38.40 $320 unit target price 12°X0). Hence, the unittarget full cost is US $281.60 $320 – $38.40). The current full cost per unit is US $352.00[($13,200,000 CGS + $7,920,000 other value chain operating costs) – 60,000 units sold], sothe necessary reduction in the full cost per unit is US $70.40 $352.00 – $281.60).

QUESTION 76
A company’s product has an expected 4-year life cycle from research, development, and design through its withdrawal from the market. Budgeted costs are: The company plans to produce 200,000 units and price the product at 125°!a of the wholelife unit cost. Thus, the budgeted unit selling price is:
A. US $15
B. US $31
C. US $36
D. US $45
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whole-life costs include after-purchase costs operating, support, repair, and disposal)incurred by customers as well as life-cycle costs R&D, design, manufacturing, marketing,distribution, and research). Hence, the budgeted unit whole-life cost is US $36 [($2,000,000+ $3,000,000 + $1,200,000 + $1,000,000) – 200,000 units], and the budgeted unit sellingprice is US $45 $36 125CYo).

QUESTION 77
A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible cost. The company is pursuing a cost:
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost focus strategy aims at cost leadership in a particular segment, such as a regionalmarket or a specialty product line. The rationale for a focus strategy is that the narrowermarket can be better served.

QUESTION 78
The dominant firm in a market pursues a market-leader strategy. This strategy may involve
A. Holding the market stable to avoid attracting new competitors.
B. A flank defense to strengthen the firm’s brand.
C. Sending market signals as a mobile defense.
D. Innovations as an offensive strategy.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Constant innovation to improve products and services, control costs, and increase distributioneffectiveness is the basis for a good offensive strategy. The leader must continuouslyimprove the value offered to customers.

QUESTION 79
During the growth stage of a product’s life cycle,
A. The quality of products is poor.
B. New product models and features are introduced.
C. There is little difference between competing products.
D. The quality of the products becomes more variable and products are less differentiated.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the growth stage, sales and profits increase rapidly, cost per customer decreases, customersare early adopters, new competitors enter an expanding market, new product models andfeatures are introduced, and promotion spending declines or remains stable. The firm entersnew market segments and distribution channels and attempts to build brand loyalty andachieve the maximum share of the market. Thus, prices are set to penetrate the market,distribution channels are extended, and the mass market is targeted through advertising. Thestrategy is to advance by these means and by achieving economies of productive scale.

QUESTION 80
In a product’s life cycle, the first symptom of the decline stage is a decline in the:
A. Firm’s inventory levels.
B. Product’s sales.
C. Product’s production cost.
D. Product’s prices.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sales of most product types and brands eventually decrease permanently. This declinemay be slow or rapid. This first symptom of the decline stage of a product’s life cycle triggerssuch other effects as price cutting, narrowing of the product line, and reduction in promotionbudgets.

QUESTION 81
At the introduction stage of an innovative product, the profit growth is normally slow due to:
A. Expensive sales promotion.
B. High competition.
C. A mass market.
D. Available alternatives.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The introduction stage is characterized by slow sales growth and lack of profits because ofthe high expenses of promotion and selective distribution to generate awareness of theproduct and encourage customers to try it. Thus, the per-customer cost is high. Competitorsare few, basic versions of the product are produced, and higher-income customersinnovators) are usually targeted. Cost-plus prices are charged. They may initially be high topermit cost recovery when unit sales are low. The strategy is to infiltrate the market, plan forfinancing to cope with losses, build supplier relations, increase production and marketingefforts, and plan for competition.

QUESTION 82
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the price charged on a consistent basis for a specific product would probably be lowest during which life cycle stage?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the maturity stage, competition is at its greatest and costs are at their lowest. Moreover, firms are engaged in competitive price-cutting measures, resulting in some of thelowest prices seen during a product’s life cycle.

QUESTION 83
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the opportunity for cost reductions would be greatest in which stage of the life cycle?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the growth stage, the opportunity for cost reductions is at its maximum becauseproduction volume is increasing at a high rate. Thus, fixed costs are being
spread over moreunits of production, and the benefits of the learning curve are being realized.

QUESTION 84
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. The manager has asked the auditor for advice about increasing advertising of various products. During which stage of the life cycle would it be appropriate to advertise that the company’s product is the lowest price and best quality of all competitors?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maturity stage is the ideal time for advertising lower prices and superior quality becausethis is the period during a product’s life when competition is greatest. Due to the availabilityof many alternatives or substitutes, a firm has reasons to set itself apart. Because price andquality are both concerns of customers during the maturity stage, it is ideal for the firm todifferentiate its product by advertising low prices and higher quality.

QUESTION 85
A firm buys like-new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is:
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market

D. Operating in a black market.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying tomake a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, theseller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

QUESTION 86
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When thesubsidiary-buyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potentialtariffs. However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower becauseof its higher acquisition cost.

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?
A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B. It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C. It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D. It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E. It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F. It supports non-IP protocols.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
QUESTION 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
QUESTION 8 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But you don’t have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time. # echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤ when System Reboot on next time, etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file /etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter. net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
QUESTION 10 CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it’s giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window System.

300-209 exam Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)./tmp is full ornotQuota is already reachedVideo card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary filequota username ¨¤ if quota is alread reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤ you can pass the
Kernel Argument from boot loader.Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card, resolution etc.Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network’s Host?
300-209 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254 OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
QUESTION 12 CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

12. mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 13 CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from allservers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from otherhost configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS=”-m 0 -r” Where
-m 0 disables ‘MARK’ messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
QUESTION 14 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:Boot the System on Single user mode.Change the passwordCheck the account expire date by using chage -l root command. If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 15 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤ What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
QUESTION 16  Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 20 CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 21 CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question No : 9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
400-251 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client

B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
400-251 dumps
A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION NO: 17
On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User’s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
400-251 exam Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Cascade product runs under Riverbed Service Platform (RSP)?
A.
Sensor-VE
B.Gateway-VE
C.
Express RSP
D.
Pilot
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
From Cascade Pilot, reports may include:
A. One or all views from the main workspace.
B. Notes entered associated with a view.
C. Analyst and Client information entered.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question No : 21 To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)
A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts
400-251 pdf 
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 22 What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?
A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 23  Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)
A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company
400-251 vce 
Answer: A,B
Question No : 24 Where do you define the mandatory attributes for a vendor?
A. Organizational plan
B. Vendor group
C. Product category
D. Business partner (vendor)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26  What is used for downloading product categories from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. CRM Middleware
B. ALE Distribution
C. Transaction COMM_HIERARCHY
D. Transaction BBPGETVD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27 What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP.
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 28  What do you activate to enable the administrator troubleshooting issues related to SRM objects (for example, shopping carts, purchase orders)?
A. Business transaction event (BTE)
B. Administrator console
C. Objects for synchronization
D. Application monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 29  Requisitions were transferred from ECC 6.0 EhP04 to SRM 7.0 using SOA, but are missing from the sourcing work list. Which transaction in SRM can you use to troubleshoot this
problem?
A. SLG1
B. WE05
C. SXMB_MONI
D. BD87
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30  Your customer would like to use vendor and purchasing organization to determine the backend system for follow-on documents. What is a valid solution for this requirement?
A. This is not possible in the standard system and requires a modification.
B. Since SAP SRM 7.0 you can define this on the function tab of the purchasing
organization within the organizational plan.
C. Maintain the customizing table Define Backend Systems respectively.
D. Use the respective Business Add-In (BAdI) and implement a specific coding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 31 During testing you discover that a confirmation created in SAP SRM did not generate a goods receipt posting in SAP ERP as expected.
Which transaction could be used to troubleshoot this problem?
A. BBP_BW_SC2
B. SXMB_MONI
C. SMQ2
D. WE05
QUESTION NO: 32
Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select “Apply with Filter”.
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
400-251 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
400-251 dumps Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

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Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Q&As: 166

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Question: 34
As an HR Professional you must recognize and be aware of several pieces of legislation that affect your performance as an HR Professional. What term describes the illegal agreement of the management to give an individual a job, as long as the person does not join or be involved with a labor union?
A. Yellow dog contract
B. Scab
C. Shill contract
D. Non-union agreement
810-403 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
A yellow dog contract is an agreement between management and an individual that gives a person a job as long as the person does not join a union. The Norris-LaGuardia Act prohibited federal courts from enforcing yellow dog contracts. Answer option B is incorrect. A scab is a derogatory term assigned to a person who will cross a picket line to work for an organization experiencing a strike by workers. Answer option C is incorrect. A shill contract is not a valid term. Answer option D is incorrect. A non-union agreement is not a valid term for this scenario.

Question: 35
Which one of the following presents the seven stages of internal consulting in the correct order?
A. Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
B. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Developing recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
C. Gathering agreement to the project plan, Exploring the situation, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
D. Exploring the situation, Gathering agreement to the project plan, Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings, Developing recommendations, Presenting the findings and recommendations, Implementing, Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project.
810-403 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The seven stages of internal consulting are as follows:
1.Exploring the situation
2.Gathering agreement to the project plan
3.Gathering data, analyzing, and identifying findings
4.Developing recommendations
5.Presenting the findings and recommendations
6.Implementing
7.Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
Answer option B is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option A is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting. Answer option C is incorrect. This is not the correct order of the seven stages of internal consulting.

Question: 36
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits discrimination on the basis of sex in the payment of wages or benefits, to men and women who perform substantially equal work for the same employer, in the same establishment, and under similar working conditions. The law defined substantial equality of job content on four factors. Which one of the following is not one of the four factors this law defines?
A. Effort
B. Working conditions
C. Skill
D. Education
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 defines the substantial equality of job contents based on skills, effort, responsibility, and working conditions. Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. Skill, effort, and working conditions are defined as part of the Equal Pay Act of 1963.
Question: 37
Which of the following is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively?
A. Performance appraisal
B. Employee self-assessment
C. Performance management
D. Supervisory training
810-403 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
Performance management is the process of constantly working with employees to enhance their ability to perform their jobs productively. Performance management includes activities to ensure that goals are consistently being met in an effective and efficient manner. Performance management can focus on the performance of an organization, a department, employee, or even the processes to build a product or service, as well as many other areas.
Answer option D is incorrect. Supervisory training generally involves topics related to interactions with employees, such as performance management, progressive discipline, performance appraisals, workplace safety, and training.
 Answer option A is incorrect. Performance appraisal is a structure for documenting individual performance. Performance appraisal can contribute to productive relationships between employees and their supervisors. Answer option B is incorrect. Employee self-assessment process is meant to be a two-way conversation. In this process, employees are asked to assess their own performance as part of the appraisal.
Question: 38
Which of the following are established by Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees
B. Minimum wage requirement
C. Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
D. Health insurance requirement
Answer: B, C, and A
Explanation:
The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) of 1938 established the following:
Minimum wage requirement Laws for protecting American children against labor exploitation
Criteria for exempt and nonexempt employees Answer option D is incorrect. Health insurance requirement are not established by FLSA.
Question: 39
You are completing a Form I-9 with a newly hired employee. Which one of the following documents is not allowed as a proof of identity and employment eligibility for the newly hired employee?
A. Driver’s license
B. Expired US passport
C. Certificate of naturalization
D. Unexpired reentry permit
810-403 vce Answer: A
Explanation:
A driver’s license is a document that is acceptable to establish identity, but it is not acceptable as a document that confirms eligibility of employment. Answer options B, C, and D are incorrect. An expired US passport, certificate of naturalization, and unexpired reentry permit are legitimate documents for the proof of employment eligibility and for identity.

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION 129:
STPs connect to ________ over A links.
A. The 800 database
B. Calling name data bases
C. Each other
D. Switches
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 130:
Common channel signal packets are exchanged using:
A. Routers.
B. Bridges.
C. STPs.
D. Switching processors.
Answer: C
QUESTION 131:
The national architecture that uses SS7 to provide services such as calling name
display is called the:
A. Integrated Services Digital Network.
B. Superior Signaling Network.
C. Advanced Intelligent Network.
D. National Advanced Information Infrastructure.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 132:
The terminating switch sends a query to a database asking for a subscriber name
using:
A. Advanced MF signaling.
B. ISDN Q.931 signaling.

C. SS7 messaging.
D. AIN address signaling.
Answer: C
QUESTION 133:
The process of connecting one input to another for a period of time is:
A. Switching.
B. Transmission.
C. Bridging.
D. Routing.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 134:
The three basic functions of switches are concentration, _______ and expansion
A. Transmission
B. Signaling
C. Addressing
D. Distribution
Answer: D
QUESTION 135:
OAM&P capabilities include translations, testing, provisioning, and one other very
important function called:
A. Switching.
B. Billing.
C. Conversion.
D. Detection.
210-260 vce Answer: B
QUESTION 136:
Step by step switches operated on:
A. Touchtone signals.
B. A single digit at each switch.
C. 110 volts AC power.

D. A millisecond switching cycle.
Answer: B
QUESTION 137:
The switches in a crossbar type switching system are at the intersection of:
A. Vertical and horizontal bars.
B. Streets and avenues.
C. Vertical and horizontal transistors.
D. Up and down magnets.
210-260 exam Answer: D
QUESTION 138:
Time division switching stages are a characteristic of:
A. Analog stored program control switches.
B. Digital stored program control switches.
C. Signal transfer points.
D. Crossbar switching systems.
Answer: B
QUESTION 139:
DS0s within a DS1 or higher are switched in a:
A. Add-drop multiplexer.
B. Space-division switch.
C. Time-division multiplexed switch.
D. Crossbar switch.
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 140:
The basic components of the time division switch are control logic, a buffer and:
A. Crosspoint switch.
B. Time-slot counter.
C. Memory.
D. Input/output.

Answer: B
QUESTION 141:
A space-division stage:
A. Uses a crosspoint switch.
B. Uses a buffer memory.
C. Switches time slots within a DS1.
D. Is not used in a digital switch.
210-260 pdf Answer:
QUESTION 142:
A digital switch is made up of the network fabric and:
A. Signaling processor.
B. Signal transfer point.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Control.
Answer: A
QUESTION 143:
Time-division switches and __________ make up the switching fabric of a digital
switch.
A. Signaling processors
B. Crossbar switches
C. Control processors
D. Space-division switches
210-260 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 144:
Optical switching are not currently used because:
A. Crossbar systems are less expensive.
B. Optical switches lack required OAM&P features.
C. Optical switching methodologies are still experimental.
D. Of difficulties in conversion between electrical and optical signals.

Answer: C
QUESTION 145:
Important considerations in justifying deployment of new telecommunications
technology include ________, revenue enhancement, security and regulation.
A. ITU standard migration
B. Teleconferencing
C. Cost reduction
D. Internet telephony
210-260 exam Answer: C
QUESTION 146:
Consideration of multiple styles of people interacting via telecommunications should
result in:
A. An increase in the software content of the solution.
B. Multiple solutions to identified needs.
C. Discarding solutions which serve a small percentage of customers.
D. More versatile call centers with Internet connectivity.
Answer: D
QUESTION 147:
You have business continuity as a means of improving security in the CO. What is
the second concern you should address?
A. Employee education
B. Reporting processes
C. Intrusion detection
D. Hackers
210-260 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION 148:
You have identified intrusion detection as a means of improving security. What is
the second concern in regards to telephony?
A. Identifying threats
B. Identifying common attacks on the CO

C. Identifying common vulnerabilities in systems
D. Identifying business continuity concerns
Answer: D
QUESTION 149:
What does a traffic table enable you to do?
A. Determine the number of necessary lines.
B. Determine the number of customers served.
C. Determine the number of available lines.
D. Determine the number of connections made over a period of time.
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION 150:
Which of the following helps you determine the number of necessary lines?
A. A line matrix
B. Service criteria
C. A traffic table
D. A connectivity map
Answer: C
QUESTION 151:
Erlang B extended is used when:
A. Blocked calls are queued.
B. Blocked calls are denied.
C. Blocked calls result in customer retries.
D. Blocked calls go to a “call back later” announcement.
210-260 vce Answer:
QUESTION 152:
What type of signal is exchanged between computer networks?
A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Network
D. Stand-alone

Answer: A
QUESTION 153:
What is the most common transmission type for low-speed data communications?
A. Encoded digital
B. Encoded analog
C. Unencoded digital
D. Unencoded analog
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 154:
What kind of equipment are modems and CSU/DSUs?
A. Hosts
B. Terminals
C. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
D. Data communications equipment (DCE)
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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Free Cisco 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
1.If you are working in a two-layer document, how should you make the top layer display only where it
overlaps the content of the low layer.
A. link the layers
B. make a clipping group
C. link the layers and select Merge Linked
D. turn Preserve Transparency for the top layer
300-135 exam Answer: B
2.Which command converts a selection into a new layer?
A. Copy Merged
B. Layer Via Copy
C. New Adjustment Layer
D. Layer from Background
Answer: B
3.Exhibit.

You want to create the hard and soft edge around an image. What area the red arrows indicating in the
Zebra layer on the Layers. Palette? (Choose two.)
A. a layer mask
B. a clipping group
C. an adjustment layer
D. a layer clipping path
300-135 dumps Answer: AD
4.You want to make certain areas of a completely opaque layer partially transparent. You have added a
 new layer mask. What should you do?
A. paint with black
B. paint with a shade of gray
C. change the opacity of the layer
D. change the opacity of the layer mask
Answer: B
5.Exhibit.
You have clicked the Lock image pixels checkbox in the Layers palette. Which action are you
PREVENTED from doing?
A. changing the blending mode
B. changing the shape of the clipping path
C. using the painting tool to modify the layer mask
D. using the history brush to paint back form an earlier state
300-135 pdf Answer: D
6.Exhibit.

You create a type layer and a fill layer with a pattern. You want the type to act as a mask so that the
pattern appears only where there is type on the type layer. What should you do?
A. position the type layer above the fill layer. with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down
B. position the type layer below the fill layer. with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Merge Down

C. position the type layer below the fill layer, with the fill layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
D. position the type flayer above the fill layer, with the type layer active, choose
Layer>Group with Previous
Answer: C
7.What are two methods to create custom layer styles? (Choose two.)
A. choose the Layer Properties dialog box
B. choose Layer>Layer Style>Copy Layer Style
C. select New Style in the Layer Styles dialog box
D. select the Create New Style button on the Style Palette
300-135 vce Answer: CD
8.Which command or tool effects all linked layers?
A. Paintbrush
B. Distort Filter
C. Free Transform
D. Levels Adjustment
Answer: C
9.You have created an action that you want to run on a folder of images. Which destination option within
the Batch command saves the files to a new location and leaves the originals untouched?
A. None
B. Folder
C. Import
D. Save and Close
300-135 exam Answer: B
10.You are working in a layered Photoshop document. You add an adjustment layer. Which layer will be
affected by the adjustment layer?
A. layers above the adjustment layer
B. layer below the adjustment layer
C. only layers included in the same layer set D.
only layers linked with the adjustment layer
Answer: B

11.You want to randomly display7% of the pixels on a layer. What should you do? A. set the layer opacity
to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Dissolve
B. set the layer opacity to7% and the layer’s blending mode to Difference C.
apply the Pointillize file then choose the Fade command with7% opacity D.
apply the Fragment filter then choose the Fade command with7% opacity
300-135 dumps Answer: A

12.Which format supports layers in Adobe Photoshop?
A. JPG
B. TIFF
C. PICT
D. EPS
Answer: B
13.You are making selection by using the elliptical marquee. The value for Feather is set10 pixels. When
would you see the effect of the feathering option?
A. When you deselect
B. When you choose Select>Feather
C. When you move the selected pixels
D. As soon as you finish making the selection
300-135 pdf Answer: C
14.Which blending mode should you use to create a drop shadow?
A. Multiply
B. Dissolve C.
Difference D.
Color Burn
Answer: A
15.When creating animations in Adobe ImageReady, what does the Tween feature do?
A. It specifies looping for playback.
B. It specifies repeat options for playback.
C. It adds a series of layers between existing layers. D.
It adds a series of frames between existing frames.
300-135 vce Answer: D

16.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the set of hardware features it supports.
Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
17.Which three features are only supported on the Switch 5500G-EI switch models? (Choose three.)
A.Port-based VLANs
B.24 or 48 10/100/1000 Mbps ports
C.PoE upgradeable power supply unit
D.Hot-swappable Application Module Slot
E.Four GBIC Small Form-factor Plug-in (SFP) ports
300-135 exam Correct:B C D
18.Click the Task button. Drag each Switch 5500 model to the recommended customer environment.
Correct:
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice1
19.Using 3Com’s XRN technology, you can mix Switch 5500-SI and Switch 5500-EI model switches
to create a single switch stack.
A.True
B.False
300-135 dumps Correct:B
20.Which Switch 5500 model(s) supports a 96 Gbps full-duplex XRN stacking connection?
A.Switch 5500-SI
B.Switch 5500-EI
C.Switch 5500G-EI
D.All of the above
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 19, 2017
Q&As: 453

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Free Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching? A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to new situations,
priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and concerns.
200-310 pdf Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 11
Your Help Desk is 24×7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country. An upcoming
snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. AverageAfter Call Work Time
200-310 vce Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 13
Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an open and positive
work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level Agreement?
(Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
200-310 exam Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 15
Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level at which that
service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 16
You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on a decrease in
customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. Systemare more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
200-310 dumps Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 17
What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 18
You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your communication?
(Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
200-310 pdf Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 300-160
Exam Name: DCID Designing Cisco Data Center Infrastructure
Updated: Sep 08, 2017
Q&As: 360

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Free Cisco 300-160 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION NO: 1. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.
What is the transmitted data rate for this frame?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 5.5 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
300-160 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2. Choose all that apply. Which techniques are used by moving devices to reserve air time?
A. Virtual Carrier Sense
B. Contention-Free
C. Power Save
D. RTS, CTS frames
Answer: AD
QUESTION NO: 3. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.

How is this frame being delivered?
A. From the mobile unit to the Access Point
B. From the Access Point to the mobile unit
C. From the mobile unit to another mobile unit in ad hoc mode
D. From a wired station to the Access Point
300-160 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed. Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUNAon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to
upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider. Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C 300-160 pdf first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems 300-160 vce is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.

During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener.The 300-160 exam cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment.
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom
monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
300-160 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3). Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment. Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud
Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests. Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss. The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
300-160 exam Answer: B

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