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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Which statement is true regarding the port channel 100 and 101 configurations between the Nexus 7010 switches?
A. The vPC assignments on N7010-C2 are incorrectly swapped
B. N7010-C1 is not allowing any active VLAN traffic to pass on Po100 and Po101.
C. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
D. The vPC peer-keepalive is down between the two Nexus 7000 switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. What is the problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are attempting to configure boot from SAN on your server that is attached to a Cisco MDS 9148 Fibre Channel switch. What is a possible issue that may occur?
A. Check the status of the licenses on the Fibre Channel switch.
B. NPV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
C. NPIV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
D. Boot from SAN is not supported via the Fibre Channel protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When you ping your new Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, you see this output:
!!…!!…!!…!!…!!…
What could be the problem?
A. Traffic may be taking a bad route through the network.
B. HSRP is flapping.
C. CoPP is rate-limiting the pings.
D. The switch has high CPU utilization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why do the lists not contain the same switches, after you issue the commands show cfs peers name and show cfs merge status?
A. The merge cannot occur until the VSAN IDs are synched.
B. The Cisco Fabric Services fabric has a physical port fault that should be investigated.
C. The fabric is partitioned into multiple Cisco Fabric Services fabrics.
D. Cisco Fabric Services need to be restarted to see the new switches.
E. A Cisco Fabric Services database lock has prevented the merge.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of an OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otv aed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv vlan on any edge devices in the site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator sets up a FabricPath network. The administrator tries to ping between two SVI interfaces on the leaf switches 10 and 20, but it fails. What caused the pings to fail?
A. Switches S10 and S20 do not have F2 modules.
B. The vPC peer gateway must be enabled on switches S10 and S20.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 should be interconnected directly.
D. VLAN 10 is not enabled on the spine switches (S1, S2, and S3).
E. Layer 3 over a vPC+ peer link is not supported.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in the local site? (Choose two.)
A. show otv overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch will show the interface information for port 10 on the connected FEX 100?
A. show interface Ethernet 100/10
B. show fex 100 interface Ethernet 1/10
C. show interface Ethernet 100/1/10
D. show interface Ethernet 1/100/10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are three situations that may cause an ISSU failure? (Choose three.)
A. A module is removed while the upgrade is in progress.
B. A proper ISSU license is not in place.
C. The device has a power disruption while the upgrade is in progress.
D. A line card is in a failure state.
E. The specified system and kickstart images are not compatible.
F. The management interface is not in the correct VRF.G. The secondary supervisor is not installed.
H. The redundancy force-switchover command was used during the ISSU.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
Which command helps to determine if there are any conflicts in the network with respect to a FabricPath configuration?
A. show licenses
B. show fabricpath conflict
C. show fabricpath conflict all
D. switchport mode fabricpath
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer’s representatives want to know how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command is
useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issu test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding trunking on an ISL between two switches in order for the VSAN to be trunked? (Choose three.)
A. The VSAN must be defined on both switches.
B. The VSAN must be on the VSAN allowed list.
C. All VSANs that are being trunked must be using either enhanced or non-enhanced mode zoning, but not both.
D. IVR must be configured for Cisco Fabric Services.
E. The device alias database must successfully merge.
F. There cannot be any duplicate domain IDs within an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator is deploying FCoE; however, a VFC interface will not come up. The administrator executes the commandshow platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc and displays the output.
What is the problem?
A. An incorrect VSAN number is being used.
B. The connected host does not support FIP.
C. FCoE is not enabled.
D. Priority flow control is not being negotiated with the converged network adapter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You receive a priority 1 trouble ticket that there is OSPF route instability in the data center core Cisco Nexus 7018 Switches. Which command is useful to help validate a theory that hello packets are being throttled?
A. N7018# show class-map interface control-plane
B. N7018# show policy-map interface control-plane
C. N7018# show service-policy interface control-plane
D. N7018# show copp status
E. N7018# show copp statistics
F. N7018# show control-plane class copp-system-class-critical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have enabled configuration synchronization between two Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switches. You create a port channel on switch 1 and determine that it was not synchronized with its peer. The peer switch can be pinged on the
management VRF. When you check your peer status, you receive a “peer not reachable” message in the command output. What is the explanation for this?
A. CDP is disabled.
B. An LACP mismatch exists on the peer interfaces.
C. UDLD is disabled.
D. CFSoIP is disabled.
E. Multicast routing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
While troubleshooting HSRP adjacency, a packet analyzer captures the remote packet with the information: IP 224.0.0.102 with a MAC address of 0000.0C9F.0256. The DCI local group number is 256.
Which solution resolves the problem?
A. Request that the remote data center change the HSRP version to V1.
B. Report the issue as a suspected bug because the group number is correct based on the analyzer.
C. Request that the remote data center verifies that they do not have an HSRP password configured.
D. Request that the remote data center to use the correct HSRP group number.
E. Change the local HSRP version to V1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in all sites in the overlay? (Choose two.)A. show otv adjacency overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 27
To ensure that DCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A customer calls you to report that it receives an error when entering the pinning max-links 4 command in FEX configuration mode on its Cisco Nexus 5596T Switch. Which of these is a likely cause for this condition?
A. The FEX fabric interface is down.
B. The transceiver is incorrect.
C. A fabric interface is in a port channel.
D. The fabric interface switchport mode is set to Access.
E. Only two fabric interfaces are connected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
NPV mode is not operating properly on a Cisco Nexus or Cisco MDS Series Switch. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. An uplink NP port is stuck initializing.
B. The VSAN does not match at each end of the connection.
C. The VLAN does not match at each end of the connection.
D. The license is invalid.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about configuring NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only F, E, and SD ports are supported in NPV mode.
B. Only targets can be connected to an NPV device.
C. Distribute the NPV core switch links to different port groups for improved scalability.
D. If DPVM is configured on the NPV core switch for an end device that is connected to the NPV device, then that end device must be configured to be in the same VSAN.
E. NPV does not support NPIV-capable module servers (nested NPIV).
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 32
When using a Cisco Nexus 5500 and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, how can a port channel interface be configured?
A. Layer 3 interface
B. Layer 3 interface in non-admin VDC only
C. Layer 3 interface in admin VDC only
D. Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which two commands can you issue on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch to determine which interfaces are connected to fabric extenders? (Choose two.)
A. show fex-fabric interface
B. show fex
C. show fex fex-id
D. show fex interface
E. show fex detail
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues cause a problem with the implementation of an OTV between data centers? (Choose two.)
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 35
The traffic across your port channels seems to be favoring one link over the other. How can you adjust the load-balancing policy to include source and destination MAC addresses, IP address, and TCP port?
A. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
B. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
C. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
D. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
What is the cause of the ISSU failure when using the command show system internal csm global info?
A. The command conf-t is holding a lock and not released it.
B. The SSN feature is not enabled on both switches.
C. The reference count is less than 1 due to a lack of successful config-sync.
D. It cannot be determined from the output.
E. An Administrator is logged in on another session and has a lock of the session data base to prevent ISSU.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two commands are used to determine the CoPP profile used on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series? (Choose two.)
A. #show copp profile
B. #show copp diff profile
C. #show copp status
D. #show running-config copp
E. #show policy-map interface control-plane
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 38
The installation of a new OTV network connecting two data centers via a service provider LAN has failed verification steps. Which statement explains why certain types of data are not being successfully transferred across the OTV network?
A. The number of extended VLANs across all configured overlays may be greater than 256.
B. The number of MAC addresses on either edge device may exceed 4000.
C. The additional 42-byte OTV overhead, along with the DF bit being set, may cause the service provider to drop packets based on their 1500 MTU settings.
D. Having more than two edge devices per site is not supported.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
FCoE traffic from C200-1 on VSAN 13 is not being switched through the network. Which statement explains the cause of the problem?
A. The LAN switchport on N5K2 must be configured as a trunk.
B. VLAN 1013 on N5K2 is not allowed on the LAN.
C. The vFC on N5K2 that is associated with VSAN 13 is in the wrong port mode.
D. The M1 card on the Nexus 7000 switch does not support FCoE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 41
There is an ARP storm in VDC 1. Some users on VDC 2 notice that ARP is not resolving for their gateway on the Cisco Nexus core. What is the cause?
A. The ARP CoPP class committed information rate is exceeded, resulting in ARP loss in all VDCs.
B. The administrator has not correctly configured the ARP CoPP class in VDC 2.
C. The ARP traffic in VDC 1 is copied to the host ports in VDC 2, causing overutilization and output discards.
D. Because the ARP process in the default VDC (VDC 1) is responsible for processing ARP traffic for all VDCs, VDC 2 will be affected.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
A customer reports that a 10-Gb interface between a Cisco Nexus 7009 Switch and a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch is not passing traffic. The Nexus 7009 interface indicates up/up. The Nexus 5548UP interface indicates up/down. Which
feature should you enable to help isolate the root cause?
A. CDP
B. GOLD
C. UDLD
D. DAI
E. LACP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which three commands will help an administrator identify any issues with an In-Service Software Upgrade? (Choose three.)
A. show cts interface
B. show incompatibility system
C. show license file
D. show install impact all
E. show lacp issu-impact
F. show install issu-failure
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
t has been determined that unknown unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic is not correctly being switched through either Nexus 7010 switch. Which statement best describes the cause of this issue?
A. No VLANs are allowed across the vPC peer link.
B. The MST STP is not enabled on either switch.
C. The default VLAN is inactive.
D. VTP is not configured to handle this type of traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
You receive an error attempting to enable the vPC feature on a Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch. Which Cisco Fabric Services distribution must be operational before the feature can be enabled?
A. CFSoFC
B. CFSoIP
C. CFSoV
D. CFSoE
E. CFSoM
Correct Answer: D

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Updated: Sep 08, 2017
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Free Cisco 300-160 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION NO: 1. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.
What is the transmitted data rate for this frame?
A. 1 Mbps
B. 2 Mbps
C. 5.5 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps
300-160 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2. Choose all that apply. Which techniques are used by moving devices to reserve air time?
A. Virtual Carrier Sense
B. Contention-Free
C. Power Save
D. RTS, CTS frames
Answer: AD
QUESTION NO: 3. View the exhibit of a Decode window view of a frame below.

How is this frame being delivered?
A. From the mobile unit to the Access Point
B. From the Access Point to the mobile unit
C. From the mobile unit to another mobile unit in ad hoc mode
D. From a wired station to the Access Point
300-160 dumps 
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Cloud Service A accesses LUN Aon Cloud Storage Device A when it receives requests to process data from cloud consumers. Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A. The usage and administration portal can be used to access and manage the data in Cloud Storage Device B, which is also hosted by Virtual Server A. Virtual Server A is further hosted by Hypervisor A, which resides on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is part of a virtual server cluster hosted by Hypervisor B. which resides on Physical Server B. Physical Server C is not in use and does not yet have an operating system installed. Cloud Service Consumer A sends a request to Cloud Service A (1), which accesses data in LUNAon Cloud Storage Device A (2). Cloud Consumer B uses the usage and administration portal to
upload new data (3). The data is placed in LUN B on Cloud Storage Device B (4).
Cloud Service Consumer A and Cloud Consumer B belong to Organization A, which is leasing Virtual Server A and Virtual Server B from the cloud provider. Organization A also proceeds to lease Physical Server C as part of a new laaS agreement it signs with the cloud provider. Organization A wants to provision Physical Server C with a number of legacy systems that cannot be deployed on virtual servers. However, when it attempts to do so, it realizes that its laaS package only provides Physical Server C as an out-of-the-box hardware server without anything installed on it. In order to deploy its legacy systems Organization A requires that Physical Server C 300-160 pdf first has an operating system installed, but it has no means of remotely provisioning Physical Server C with an operating system.

Organization A would like to deploy two of its legacy systems on Virtual Server A and to further extend Cloud Service A’s functions so that it can be used as an external interface for cloud service consumers to access legacy system features. Additionally, Organization A would like to deploy three of its mission-critical legacy systems on Virtual Server B in order to take advantage of the additional performance and failover benefits provided by the virtual server cluster that Virtual Server B is part of. Each of the five legacy systems 300-160 vce is comprised of dozens of components that need to be installed individually. Instead of manually installing each component of each legacy system, Organization A would like to customize workflows that can automate these deployment tasks.

During the first few months of working with its cloud-based legacy systems. Organization A receives a number of complaints from users that the cloud-based legacy systems are at times behaving erratically. However, when cloud resource administrators with Organization A review the cloud provider’s reports that log usage, downtime and other runtime characteristics, they do not find any indication of erratic behavior or any other comparable problems. After some further investigation, the cloud resource administrators determine that the nature of the erratic behavior is specific to proprietary features of the legacy systems and is therefore not monitored or logged by the cloud provider’s standard audit monitor, pay-per-use monitor or automated scaling listener.The 300-160 exam cloud resource administrators recommend that a new service agent be developed with features customized to monitor the legacy systems.
Which of the following statements provides a solution that can address Organization A’s requirements?
A. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to remotely provision Physical Server C with the operating system required to deploy the legacy systems. The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to create custom scripts that can carry out the deployment of the legacy system components via the use of an intelligent automation engine. To provide Organization X with the tools to monitor IT resource usage and collect usage data so that security breaches and other impacts do not occur, the Usage Monitoring pattern can be applied to establish the required custom monitoring functionality.
B. The Bare-Metal Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Organization A to provisioning Physical Server C with legacy systems after the operating system has been installed. The Synchronized Operating State pattern can be applied to consolidate Organization A’s legacy systems via a centralized administration portal from which it can then automate their deployment.
The Automated Administration pattern can be applied to establish a series of workflow scripts customized to monitor and log proprietary legacy system behavior.
C. The Rapid Provisioning pattern can be applied to enable Physical Server C to be remotely provisioned with the operating system and legacy systems. The Centralized RemoteAdministration pattern can be applied to enable Organization A’s employees to remotely manage and administer legacy system deployment. The Pay-as-You-Go pattern can be applied to establish the custom
monitoring functionality required by Organization A’s legacy systems.
D. None of the above.
300-160 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 5
Cloud Service A is hosted by Virtual Server A, which is hosted by Hypervisor A on Physical Server A. Virtual Server B is hosted by Hypervisor B on Physical Server B. Cloud Service Consumer A accesses Cloud Service A and the request is intercepted by an SLA monitor (1). Cloud Service A receives the request (2) and accesses Cloud Storage Device A and Cloud Storage Device B (3). Cloud Service Consumer A belongs to Organization A, which is leasing all of the IT resources shown in the figure as part of an laaS environment. Cloud Storage Device B has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device A. Cloud
Storage Device C has a higher performance capacity than Cloud Storage Device B. The requests being received by Cloud Service A from Cloud Service Consumer A have recently increased in both quantity and in the amount of data being queried, written and read from Cloud Storage Device A. As a result, Cloud Storage Device A’s capacity is frequently reached and it has become unstable at times, timing out with some requests and rejecting other requests. Cloud Storage Device C is used by Organization A to store backup data on a daily basis. One day, a hardware failure within Cloud Storage Device C results in the permanent loss of data. Organization A requires a system that will prevent this type of failure from resulting in data loss. The cloud provider is planning to implement a routine maintenance schedule for Cloud Storage Devices A, B, and C and issues a notice stating that the new schedule will start next week. An outage of 30 minutes every Thursday and Sunday at 8:00 PM is needed for the maintenance tasks. Upon hearing this, Organization A complains that they cannot afford to have Cloud Storage Devices A and B become inoperable, especially not during the weekdays.
Which of the following statements describes a solution that can address Organization A’s issues?
A. The Intra-Storage Device Vertical Data Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern can be applied to establish a resilient watchdog system that is able to respond dynamically to prevent data loss. The Service State Management pattern can be applied to keep a copy of the data in Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C during the maintenance outages.
B. The Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering pattern can be applied to enable dynamic scaling between Cloud Storage Devices A, B and C. The Redundant Storage pattern can be applied by designating Cloud Storage Device D as the secondary storage to which Organization A’s data can be replicated. In order to prevent planned or unplanned outages from affecting Organization A’s data access, the Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
C. The Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can be applied to increase the bandwidth of Physical Server A so that data processing problems within Cloud Storage Device A can be prevented. The Non-Disruptive Service Relocation pattern can be applied to automatically relocate Cloud Storage Device A to Physical Server B so that data access is not interrupted. The Storage Maintenance Window pattern can be applied to replicate the data in Cloud Storage Device D for retrieval before the outages begin.
D. None of the above.
300-160 exam Answer: B

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