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QUESTION 1
You manage Cisco UCS -Series Rack-Mount Servers. Which three components can you upgrade by using the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility? (Choose three.)
A. the LAN on motherboard
B. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller
C. the operating system images
D. the system BIOS
E. the fabric interconnects
F. the FEX modules
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/lomug/2- 0x/b_huu_2_0_3/b_huu_2_0_3_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can a user with the ext-lan-policy privileges perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure management interfaces on the fabric interconnect.
B. Configure Ethernet pin groups.
C. Configure management interfaces monitoring policy.
D. Create/modify/delete vNIC/vHBA placement policies.
E. Configure DNS providers and DNS domain.
F. Specify the allowed range for virtual MAC addresses.
G. Configure fabric interconnect system name.
H. This privilege has full access to all operations.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 21/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_G uide_1_2 _1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guid e_1_2_1_chapter9.html

QUESTION 4
You must upgrade a Cisco UCS -Series Server. Where must the Cisco UCS bundle image be located before you can begin the upgrade?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller memory of the server
B. a USB drive connected to a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
C. a TFTP server accessible to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
D. the flash file system of the fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware- mgmt/gui/21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/downloading_and_managing_firmware_in _cisco_ucs_mana
ger.html#concept_1923688E7A2E46239DCAE363E4A3DE81

QUESTION 5
From the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which two configurations can be performed for Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Servers from the rack server discovery policy? (Choose two.)
A. Whether the server is discovered immediately or after the acknowledgement of the administrator
B. Defines the scrub policy to be used upon discovery
C. Defines the management IP address to be associated to the server upon discovery
D. Reverts a -Series server from Cisco UCS domain mode to standalone mode
E. Defines the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility ISO file for the rack servers connected to the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 6
An administrator is testing the Cisco Nexus 1000v switch on top of a Cisco UCS Blade. They realize that the test VM traffic is not marked correctly after it leaves the Cisco UCS B- series blade. What is the reason for seeing this behavior?
A. The Cisco UCS does not support QoS marking
B. The Cisco UCS QoS policy applied to the blade has the host control set to “none.”
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches do not support QoS marking.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch QoS marking has not been enabled with “feature gos.”
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?
A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement is true regarding this setup created by this configuration?
A. The NIC bypasses the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets
B. The applications interact directly with the OS Kernel
C. All of the other vNICs in the server are deleted and replaced by the usnic.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computi ng/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b_Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_C SeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco VM-FEX dynamic vNIC configuration and provisioning by using the Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by using SNMP.
B. Dynamic vNIC parameters must be configured manually before the virtual machine connects to its port group.
C. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured dynamically after the assigned virtual machine connects to the port group.
D. Dynamic vNIC parameters are enabled by using the Fibre Channel Forwarder protocol.
E. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by inheriting the port-group parameters of the associated virtual machines.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/ n5k_ops_vmfex.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of a WWN pool are true? (Choose two.)
A. a collection of WWNs for use by the iSCSI interfaces in a Cisco UCS instance
B. a collection of Ethernet MAC addresses assigned to the Ethernet adapters in a Cisco UCS instance
C. a pool of WW port names, where WWPN is the port name assigned to the Fibre Channel port on the adapter
D. a collection of management IP addresses used to connect to servers
E. a pool of WW node names, where WWNN belongs to the node
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 31/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_ chapter22.html

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the purpose of a storage connection policy in Cisco UCS Manager is true?
A. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when vHBAs are configured in a service profile.
B. It defines how zoning is configured for initiators and targets on the fabric interconnect.
C. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when storage devices connect to the fabric interconnects.
D. It defines the number of storage connections that are allowed to connect to the fabric interconnects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which three options are valid system classes for QoS in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose three.)
A. platinum
B. silver
C. best effort
D. voice
E. high-priority
F. FCoE
G. drop eligible
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Based on the output, which statement about the fabric interconnect is true?
A. The fabric interconnect floods multicast traffic in VLAN 100.
B. 10 groups in the fabric interconnect have been configured for VLAN 100 access.
C. After adding VLAN 100, no other changes were made.
D. IGMP snooping was enabled by the admin for VLAN 100.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 3 screenshot of UCS Manager. Which two items are required to configure an IPMI profile? (Choose two.)
A. IPMI Type
B. User
C. Role
D. Locale
E. Administrative State
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111 00.html#d129007e3491a1635

QUESTION 15
Which three options are needed when configuring local zoning on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC switching mode.
B. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC end-host mode.
C. SAN connectivity policy
D. storage connection policy
E. FC target endpoints
F. iSCSI target endpoints
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two factors determine the recommended maximum number of virtual interfaces on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. the number of compute blades in the system
B. the number of interfaces sharing the uplinks
C. the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade
D. the number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2- 0-2/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration/b_UCSM_202_CIntegration_chapter_01.html#reference_7F381038303B4825A CD303765905086A
The number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/Reference- Docs/ConfigurationLimits/31/b_UCS_Configuration_Limits_3_1.html the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade

QUESTION 17
Which three components perform the port extension functions for a Cisco UCS domain? (Choose three.)
A. the multiprotocol port on the Cisco storage
B. the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. the Cisco UCS 2208XP IOMs
D. the Cisco UCS Manager
E. the Cisco Nexus 2232PP FEX
F. the Cisco UCS VIC adapter that has VM-FEX and Adapter FEX technology
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which two policies can specify that a port channel be configured between the fabric extender and fabric interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Chassis or fabric extender discovery policy
B. Rack server discovery policy
C. Rack management connection policy
D. Server inheritance policies
E. Autoconfig policies
F. Chassis connectivity policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 19
Which boot option must be present in the boot policy to have the option to manually boot from the FlexFlash Secure Digital card?
A. any configuration
B. FlexFlash state
C. local disk
D. remote virtual drive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser CardCorrect Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C240M4/install/C240M4 /replace.html

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/apic- management-guide/5-
4/b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_Guide_54b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_G uide_54_chapter_011.html Step 1 On the menu bar, choose Administration > Physical Accounts.
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/raid/configuration/guide/ RAID_GUIDE.pdf

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/oui-for-wwn-and-macs/td- p/1441710
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/when-to-use-wwnn-and- wwpn-pools/tdp/1614344
http://www.vmwareadmins.com/using-a-address-naming-convention-with-cisco-ucs/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MAC_address

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/4 21_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1/Cisco_n5k_nxos_s
answitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1_chapter7.html#con_133799

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-5000-seriesswitches/117690- configure-vmfex-00.html

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 .html

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/smb-technologist/installing-vsphere-on-cisco-ucs-cseries- servers/

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server TroubleshootingCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b _Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_CSeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1 F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link
technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
M81KR (supports many adapters and VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/data_sheet_c78-525049.html M72KR-Q (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-623738.html M71KR-E (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-703582.html P81E (supports many adapters, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ collateral/servers -unified-computing/ucs-c-series- rack-servers/ data_sheet_c78-558230.html M51KR-B (this is not a converged network adapter CNA, and does not support vHBAs)
https:// www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b- series-blade- servers/spec_sheet_c17-644236.pdf

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 1.html

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/confi g_guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_ UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/benefits-to-vpc-on-6200s- fabric-interconnects-inucs/td-p/2086588

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and
IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111
10.html#concept_3735BFD6DA5A49CF90B1B4EEE6BCBF25

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter7.html

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1XCorrect Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins: Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5 D2DA1FC

QUESTION 42
Which option describes the difference between “high-performance” and “none” on a VM- FEX port profile?
A. None is software assisted, and high-performance is software and hardware assisted.
B. None indicates that VM-FEX is not used on this interface, and high-performance indicates that is used.
C. None is used for management profiles, and high-performance is used for mission-critical data profiles.
D. None assumes default scheduling settings for the port profile, and high-performance gives the ports priority in scheduling.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 43
You are configuring integration between the Cisco UCS Manager and the VMware vCenter Server Appliance. Which three actions must you perform from the Cisco Configure VMware Integration Wizard? (Choose three.)
A. Define the virtual machine port profile in the Cisco UCS Manager for virtual machine traffic.
B. Install and register the Cisco UCS Manager extension as a plug-in in the VMware vCenter.
C. Install and register the VMware VM Console plug-in in the Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Apply a port profile (port group) to the virtual machines on the VMware vCenter server.
E. Apply the Firewall Services Module UCS service profile to Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server.
F. Apply a fabric profile to both Cisco Fabric Interconnect uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/2-2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-
FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2_1_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 44
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 4 screenshot of the UCS Manager. Which item can only be configured in the Storage Cloud?
A. iQN Pools
B. Storage FC Clinks
C. Port Channels
D. VSANs
E. Zoning
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucsinfrastructure- ucs-manager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html

QUESTION 45
Which statement about an iSCSI vNIC when it is created with an overlay NIC is true?
A. It can have any VLAN allowed on it.
B. It can be assigned a unique MAC address.
C. It can have a unique pin group assigned to it.
D. It can have only the overlays native VLAN associated to it.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Which backup option must be performed from the Cisco UCS Manager to allow for a system restore?
A. Database backup
B. Logical configuration
C. System configuration
D. Full state
E. All configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter43.html

QUESTION 47
You have chosen to defer updates to service profiles and to schedule updates. Which option do you modify in the maintenance-policy to accomplish this goal?
A. Reboot Policy
B. Schedule
C. Description
D. Other
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two settings are required when utilizing DirectPath I/O? (Choose two.)
A. CPU pinning
B. full memory reservation
C. Set port profile performance to “high”.
D. vCPU pinning
E. VM queue modification
F. adapter profile update
G. Install DirectPath VIB on host.
H. Enable VMQ with the “enable-netadaptervmq” cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 49
When performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager, which backup type must you do to backup locally authenticated users?
A. System configuration
B. All configuration
C. Full State
D. Logical Configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
A service profile is created using vHBAs. What will happen if the profile is applied to a server with a mezzanine card without storage capability?
A. The blade association will fail.
B. The storage adapter will not be visible to the operating system.
C. A virtual storage adapter will be created.
D. A WWNN or a WWPN will be autoselected from the default pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/data-center-blogs/c-series-resolve-service-profile- association-failure-when/ba-p/3103082 https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#topic_4B2EC5A485E54A2893D02A7BB5F 3E039 In addition to any guidelines or recommendations that are specific to policies and pools included in service profiles and service profile
templates, such as the local disk configuration policy, you need to be aware of the following guidelines and recommendations that impact the ability to associate a service profile with a server.

QUESTION 51
Which parameter can be configured during the initial system setup of Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect from the CLI, without restoring the configuration from an existing backup?
A. the server ports, network ports, and storage ports
B. the reserved VLAN IDs
C. the default number of dynamic vNICs
D. standalone mode or cluster mode of the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_0101.html#task_40AC6321816C401EBF1666DB32F6E954

QUESTION 52
Which boot option is recommended for a boot policy because it offers the most service profile mobility within a system?
A. iSCSI boot
B. local disk boot
C. LAN boot
D. SAN boot
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 53
You attempt to perform an ESXi update on a Cisco UCS C250 server, but the update does not recognize the NICs. You must perform the update as quickly as possible. Which step must you do first?
A. Check the UCS compatibility matrix and replace the NIC with a supported one.
B. Reconfigure the NIC ID on the LOM.
C. Update the LOM firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
D. Update the NIC firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/ucs240m3-network- interfaces-missing-on-esxi-5-1u1/td-p/2415392 http://terenceluk.blogspot.com/2011/08/updating-firmware-for-cisco-ucs-c.html

QUESTION 54
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates with the line “pinning server pinning-failure link-down”?
A. Dynamic vNIC Connection
B. Link Protocol
C. Flow Control
D. Network Control
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- 5100-seriesblade-server-chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_010101.html#concept_80DD753607A0427A9874F278E172F2FA

QUESTION 55
Which two options are valid server pool policy qualifications? (Choose two.)
A. server model
B. description
C. user label
D. power group
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 56
Which two constructs allow for configuration of VLANs on specific uplink ports? (Choose two.)
A. LAN pin group
B. adapter policies
C. vNIC templates
D. VLAN manager
E. link profiles
F. VLAN groups
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter17.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter14.html

QUESTION 57
Under which condition can you select the option to “remove” a blade server from within the Cisco UCS Manager?
A. The server has been decommissioned before physical removal.
B. The server has been sent a diagnostic interrupt.
C. The server has been physically removed before decommission.
D. The server has been powered down.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Which policy is used to specify how Cisco UCS Manager should proceed for configuration changes that will have a service impact?
A. host firmware policy
B. maintenance policy
C. local disk policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration.
A. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FCoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapt er_0110.html

QUESTION 60
The system-reserved VLANs within Cisco UCS are 3968 to 4048 by default. Where can a user change the starting value of this range?
A. VLAN manager
B. global policies
C. LAN cloud
D. cannot be changed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 61
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max number of concurrent tasks
B. max changes
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 62
Which statement about fabric failover for Fibre Channel communication is true?
A. You can enable hardware Fibre Channel failover.
B. Cisco UCS load balances Fibre Channel traffic between the two fabrics.
C. You must use a Fibre Channel multipath I/O driver.
D. You do not have to use anything.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/san-multi-pathing-best- practices/td-p/1545645
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/unified-computing- system/116471-configure-npiv-00.html#anc9
https://kb.netapp.com/support/s/article/how-to-verify-windows-fibre-channel-configurations- with-multipathing-io-mpio?language=en_US

QUESTION 63
Which technology makes VM-FEX possible?
A. VXLAN
B. VNTAG
C. VPC
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 64
With Cisco UCS Manager, in which location do you monitor the chassis discovery process?
A. CMC
B. FSM
C. CDP
D. DME
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 011.html

QUESTION 65
You configure a service profile template from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI by using the Create Local Disk Configuration Policy option The No RAID local disk policy mode is selected and the Protect Configuration property is disabled. You
create a service profile that is created from the service profile template. You apply the service profile to a server that has an operating system installed on a RAID-10 volume. Which statement about the server after it is associated to the
service profile is true?A. The server has RAID-0 configured on the local disk.
B. The server has RAID-1 configured on the local disk.
C. The server has the local storage detached.
D. The local disk of the server remains RAID-10.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 66
Which two statements about the provisioning of Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VT-D feature on the ESX host server must be disabled before you can enable VMDirectPath.
B. VM-FEX standard mode is the same as VM-FEX high-performance mode.
C. Enabling high performance turns on VMDirectPath mode.
D. VMDirectPath mode prevents the use of VMware vMotion.
E. To use Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode, a virtual machine must have a dynamic vNIC and two static vNICs on the VIC adapter.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center- virtualization/unifiedcomputing/vm_fex_best_practices_deployment_guide.html

QUESTION 67
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/bladeservers/install/B200.html

QUESTION 68
When deploying a dynamic FCoE topology using ECMP, what ancillary technology is used?
A. Fabricpath
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/datacenter/what-is-dynamic-fcoe

QUESTION 69
Which maintenance action releases the assigned chassis ID for future use?
A. Acknowledge chassis
B. Reset CMOS
C. Decommission chassis
D. Remove chassis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/22/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/managing_the_chassis.html#task_EB93895D63664D86ACDE9D13C222A452

QUESTION 70
Which of the following supports more than two component-resident versions of firmware?
A. mezzanine adapters
B. I/O modules
C. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
D. CIMCs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/110511-ucs-fw-mgmt-00.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/FirmwareMgmt/31/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_G
UI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_011.html#task_C8E850B883D741BFBEF 0FBBA409C6CB7

QUESTION 71
Which two parameters are used by Cisco UCS for automatic Fibre Channel uplink pinning?
A. server WWN
B. MDS WWNN
C. VSAN membership
D. hash algorithm
E. vHBA MAC address
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapter_011000.html https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/
sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010110.html#task_2F3F6BFFC4384A2F8809492F9DE8FD23

QUESTION 72
Which four physical connections on a fabric interconnect are needed to perform the initial system setup for a cluster configuration? (Choose four.)
A. Ethernet uplink ports connected to upstream switch
B. console port connected to a computer terminal or console server.
C. Layer 1 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
D. Layer 1 port of the first fabric interconnect connected to Layer 2 port of the second fabric interconnect
E. Layer 2 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
F. Fibre Channel uplink ports connected to upstream fabric switch
G. management Ethernet port (mgmt0) connected to external switch or router
H. port channel to each fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: BCEG
Explanation

QUESTION 73
Which policy determines what happens to local disks when they are disassociated from a service profile?
A. maintenance policy
B. local disk policyC. scrub policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 74
Which two components can be specified in a host firmware package? (Choose two.)
A. CPU
B. BIOS
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
D. LOM
E. DIMM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 75
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 76
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which log would you view to determine which UCS Manager user modified a Service Profile?
A. Events
B. Audit
C. Syslog
D. SEL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101101.html

QUESTION 77
Which three parameters can be configured for a vHBA? (Choose three.)
A. Enable persistent binding.B. Enable a hardware-based failover.
C. Define a SAN pin group
D. Assign a QoS policy.
E. Define an MTU.
F. Assign a MAC address.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/21/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110 10.html

QUESTION 78
While configuring communication between vCenter and Cisco UCS, which two items are contained in the extension file? (Choose two.)
A. extension key
B. plug-in version information
C. SSL private certificate
D. Cisco UCS Manager SSL public certificate
E. SSH public key
F. Cisco UCS Manager admin credentials
G. IP address of the hosts utilizing VM link
H. vCenter SSL public certificate
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are a result of utilizing org permissions on VLANs within a sub- org? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs can be defined only once globally.
B. VLAN IDs can be defined within each sub-org.
C. VLAN name must match across orgs and sub-orgs.
D. VLAN name can be different per sub-org.
E. Sub-org vNICs can utilize parent org VLANs.
F. Parent org vNICs can utilize sub-org VLANs.
G. Sub-org vNICs can utilize only parent org native VLANs.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 80
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. Which item is true about Boot Order in Cisco UCS – Series Rack Servers?
A. Boot order configured in the BIOS will not be reflected in the Cisco IMC GUI.
B. Boot options should not be disabled in the BIOS.
C. The Boot Order set in the BIOS does not override the Cisco IMC.
D. Boot Order should only be configured in the Cisco IMC GUI.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
Which command sequence in the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server CLI sends tech support data to a TFTP server?
A. ucs-c250 / # scope cimc
ucs-c250 /cimc # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# commit
B. ucs-c250 / # scope system
ucs-c250 /system # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# commit
C. ucs-c250 / # scope support
ucs-c250 /support # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# commit
D. ucs-c250 / # scope fault
ucs-c250 /fault # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# commit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_1_1_2_chapter13.html#task_551DFD0E88124951A54DC305C29F7F7C This example creates a support data file and transfers the file to a TFTP server:
Server# scope cimc
Server /cimc # scope tech-support
Server /cimc/tech-support # set tftp-ip 10.20.30.41 Server /cimc/tech-support *# set path /user/user1/supportfile Server /cimc/tech-support *# commit Server /cimc/tech-support # start Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/

QUESTION 82
Which four Cisco UCS components use the Cisco NX-OS syslog services to generate syslog entries for system information and alerts? (Choose four.)
A. I/O module
B. fabric interconnect
C. chassis
D. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
E. Cisco UCS Manager
F. adapter
G. Ethernet uplink
H. storage moduleCorrect Answer: ADEF
Explanation

QUESTION 83
Which statement about the Cisco Integrated Management Controller configuration utility for Cisco UCS CSeries servers is true?
A. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports SSL3 and HTLM5.
B. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports HTTP and Microsoft Silverlight.
C. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco In Management Controller to use a static IP address only.
D. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco Integrated Management Controller to use a static IP address or an IP address from DHCP
E. When the IP address is configured in BIOS, you can point a Web browser to the configured IP address to open the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c200-m1-high- density-rack-mountserver/111455-setup-cimc-c-series.html

QUESTION 84
You have been tasked with performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager that can be used to restore the system during disaster recovery. Which type of backup must you perform?
A. System configuration
B. Full state
C. All configuration
D. Logical configuration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/AdminManagement/31/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Ad
min_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_01001.html#task_C1FFA04FACF24B818316B802FC11E B19

QUESTION 85
Which Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is capable of RAID 5?
A. B200
B. B250
C. B230
D. B440
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B200 2 Bays
B250 2 Bays
B230 2 BaysB440 4 Bays
The only server that could possibly support RAID 5 is the B440 Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5 RAID 5 requires at least 3 disks.

QUESTION 86
Which two parameters must be configured on a standalone Cisco UCS C-Series Server to export the technical support data to a remote server? (Choose two)
A. Specify a remote TFTP server IP address.
B. Install a certificate
C. Install an FTP server
D. Set the source as the UCS server IP address.
E. Specify the remote relative path and file name.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_Cisco_UCS_Cseries_GUI_Configuration_Guide_201.pdf

QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tables correctly map the HIF ports to active FEX NIF ports on a Cisco UCS 2208X IOM in discrete pinning mode?
A. Table 2 and Table 4
B. Table 1 and T able 4
C. Table 2 and Table 3
D. Table 1 and Table 2
E. Table 3 and Table 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/guide/UCSTroubleshooting/ UCSTr oubleshooting_chapter_01001.html

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.
Boot Uption #1
Internal EFI Shell
SATA: HL-DT-STDVDRAM GT40N
IBA GE Slot 1600 v1335
Cisco Virtual FDD/HDD 1.22
(Bus 12 Dev 00) PCI RAID Adapter
Disabled
Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?
A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot optionC. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which options is the only supported link aggregation protocol on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Multipath
B. PagP
C. FLOGI
D. LACP
E. FCOE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
UCS port channel configuration is statically set to Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) mode active. This configuration cannot be modified; therefore, all upstream port- channel configurations must adhere to LACP mode active as well.
Alternatively, you can configure the upstream switchports for LACP mode passive.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/116095-configure-ucsupstream-port-channel-00.html

QUESTION 90
Which two AAA protocols are supported by a remote AAA database? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_FAA777771F5D4F14A82A479CE D0D4AF 4
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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(72-86)

QUESTION 72
A seller’s price is below an appropriate measure of casts. Moreover, the seller has a reasonable prospect of recovering the resulting loss in the future through higher prices or a greater market share. Accordingly, the seller has engaged in:
A. Collusive pricing.
B. Dumping.
C. Predatory pricing.
D. Price discrimination.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is intentionally pricing below cost to eliminate competition and reducesupply. Federal statutes and many state laws prohibit the practice. The U.S.
Supreme Courthas held that pricing is predatory when two conditions are met: 1) the seller’s price is belowan appropriate measure of its costs,” and 2) it has a reasonable prospect of recovering theresulting IOSS through higher prices or greater market share.

QUESTION 73
In which product-mix pricing strategy is it appropriate for the seller to accept any price that exceeds the storage and deliver} casts for the product?
A. By-product pricing.
B. Optional-product pricing.
C. Captive-product pricing.
D. Product-bundle pricing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A by-product is a product of relatively minor importance generated during the production ofone or more other products. Its production entails no additional costs. Any amount receivedabove the storage and delivery. casts for a by-product allows the seller to reduce the mainproduct’s price to make it more competitive.

QUESTION 74
Several surveys paint out that most managers use full product casts, including unit fixed casts and unit variable costs, in developing cast-based pricing. Which one of the following is least associated with cost-based pricing?
A. Price stability.
B. Price justification.
C. Target pricing.
D. Fixed-cost recovery.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A target price is the expected market price of a product, given the company’s knowledge ofits customers and competitors. Hence, under target pricing, the sales price is known beforethe product is developed. Subtracting the unit target profit margin determines the long-termunit target cast. If cost- cutting measures do not permit the product to be made at or below thetarget cast, it will be abandoned.

QUESTION 75
Fulford Company applies the target pricing and costing approach. The following information about costs and revenues of Fulford’s product are available for the year just ended: Fulford plans to increase unit sales to 80,000 by reducing the product’s unit price to US $320. If Fulford desires a unit target operating income of 12CYo, by what amount must it reduce the full cost per unit?
A. US $32.00
B. US $38.40
C. US $70.40
D. US $80.00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unit target operating income is US $38.40 $320 unit target price 12°X0). Hence, the unittarget full cost is US $281.60 $320 – $38.40). The current full cost per unit is US $352.00[($13,200,000 CGS + $7,920,000 other value chain operating costs) – 60,000 units sold], sothe necessary reduction in the full cost per unit is US $70.40 $352.00 – $281.60).

QUESTION 76
A company’s product has an expected 4-year life cycle from research, development, and design through its withdrawal from the market. Budgeted costs are: The company plans to produce 200,000 units and price the product at 125°!a of the wholelife unit cost. Thus, the budgeted unit selling price is:
A. US $15
B. US $31
C. US $36
D. US $45
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whole-life costs include after-purchase costs operating, support, repair, and disposal)incurred by customers as well as life-cycle costs R&D, design, manufacturing, marketing,distribution, and research). Hence, the budgeted unit whole-life cost is US $36 [($2,000,000+ $3,000,000 + $1,200,000 + $1,000,000) – 200,000 units], and the budgeted unit sellingprice is US $45 $36 125CYo).

QUESTION 77
A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible cost. The company is pursuing a cost:
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost focus strategy aims at cost leadership in a particular segment, such as a regionalmarket or a specialty product line. The rationale for a focus strategy is that the narrowermarket can be better served.

QUESTION 78
The dominant firm in a market pursues a market-leader strategy. This strategy may involve
A. Holding the market stable to avoid attracting new competitors.
B. A flank defense to strengthen the firm’s brand.
C. Sending market signals as a mobile defense.
D. Innovations as an offensive strategy.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Constant innovation to improve products and services, control costs, and increase distributioneffectiveness is the basis for a good offensive strategy. The leader must continuouslyimprove the value offered to customers.

QUESTION 79
During the growth stage of a product’s life cycle,
A. The quality of products is poor.
B. New product models and features are introduced.
C. There is little difference between competing products.
D. The quality of the products becomes more variable and products are less differentiated.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the growth stage, sales and profits increase rapidly, cost per customer decreases, customersare early adopters, new competitors enter an expanding market, new product models andfeatures are introduced, and promotion spending declines or remains stable. The firm entersnew market segments and distribution channels and attempts to build brand loyalty andachieve the maximum share of the market. Thus, prices are set to penetrate the market,distribution channels are extended, and the mass market is targeted through advertising. Thestrategy is to advance by these means and by achieving economies of productive scale.

QUESTION 80
In a product’s life cycle, the first symptom of the decline stage is a decline in the:
A. Firm’s inventory levels.
B. Product’s sales.
C. Product’s production cost.
D. Product’s prices.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sales of most product types and brands eventually decrease permanently. This declinemay be slow or rapid. This first symptom of the decline stage of a product’s life cycle triggerssuch other effects as price cutting, narrowing of the product line, and reduction in promotionbudgets.

QUESTION 81
At the introduction stage of an innovative product, the profit growth is normally slow due to:
A. Expensive sales promotion.
B. High competition.
C. A mass market.
D. Available alternatives.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The introduction stage is characterized by slow sales growth and lack of profits because ofthe high expenses of promotion and selective distribution to generate awareness of theproduct and encourage customers to try it. Thus, the per-customer cost is high. Competitorsare few, basic versions of the product are produced, and higher-income customersinnovators) are usually targeted. Cost-plus prices are charged. They may initially be high topermit cost recovery when unit sales are low. The strategy is to infiltrate the market, plan forfinancing to cope with losses, build supplier relations, increase production and marketingefforts, and plan for competition.

QUESTION 82
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the price charged on a consistent basis for a specific product would probably be lowest during which life cycle stage?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the maturity stage, competition is at its greatest and costs are at their lowest. Moreover, firms are engaged in competitive price-cutting measures, resulting in some of thelowest prices seen during a product’s life cycle.

QUESTION 83
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the opportunity for cost reductions would be greatest in which stage of the life cycle?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the growth stage, the opportunity for cost reductions is at its maximum becauseproduction volume is increasing at a high rate. Thus, fixed costs are being
spread over moreunits of production, and the benefits of the learning curve are being realized.

QUESTION 84
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. The manager has asked the auditor for advice about increasing advertising of various products. During which stage of the life cycle would it be appropriate to advertise that the company’s product is the lowest price and best quality of all competitors?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maturity stage is the ideal time for advertising lower prices and superior quality becausethis is the period during a product’s life when competition is greatest. Due to the availabilityof many alternatives or substitutes, a firm has reasons to set itself apart. Because price andquality are both concerns of customers during the maturity stage, it is ideal for the firm todifferentiate its product by advertising low prices and higher quality.

QUESTION 85
A firm buys like-new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is:
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market

D. Operating in a black market.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying tomake a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, theseller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

QUESTION 86
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When thesubsidiary-buyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potentialtariffs. However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower becauseof its higher acquisition cost.

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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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