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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 74-678 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. License Mobility through Software Assurance (SA) is an SA benefit that provides users with the right to access Microsoft Office Professional Plus in a company’s Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) from computers that are not company owned, such as kiosk computers at hotels. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. License Mobility within Server Farms
C. Home Use Program
D. Roaming Use Rights
E. Windows Companion Subscription License
74-678 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A customer purchases server licenses through a Select Plus agreement and has a Software Assurance Membership (SAM) for the server pool. To which three SAM benefits is the customer entitled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. E-Learning
B. Roaming Use Rights
C. Planning Services
D. Enhanced Edition Benefits
E. Training Vouchers
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software Assurance Benefits:
There are over a dozen SA benefits and the amount of benefits your organization has depends on the licensing agreement. The list below highlights the most popular benefits associated with Office.
* (a) E-Learning
* (c) Planning services
* New software versions
* (e) Training vouchers
* Home Use Program
* 24×7 phone and web support
* Technet
* Microsoft Office Multi Language Pack
Reference: Microsoft Office 2010 Engineering, Understanding Software Assurance

QUESTION 3
A customer plans to deploy a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) by using Microsoft technologies. Users will access the deployment on-premises and at home from personal computers. You need to tell the customer which Software Assurance (SA) benefits can be used to enable a full VDI deployment. Which three SA benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Windows Roaming Use Rights
B. Visualization Rights for Windows
C. Enhanced Edition Benefits
D. Windows Virtual Desktop Access (VDA) rights
E. Home Use Program
F. Windows Thin PC
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Extended roaming rights
Primary user of a VDA or SA device can access VDI desktop from any device outside the corporate firewall
C: Use any version of Windows
Upgrade/downgrade rights for Windows included
E: Software Assurance (SA) licensing provides Windows desktop customers with technical support, training vouchers, home-use rights and other benefits.

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. builds cloud applications. Microsoft Azure allows the company’s developers to deploy and manage their applications and to pay for only the resources that their applications use. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Windows Intune
C. A Power BI for Office 365 subscription
D. A Microsoft Office 365 Developer subscription
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have mailboxes that use Unified Messaging The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer acquires Microsoft Office 365 add-ons through an Enterprise Agreement. The customer must consult the Volume Licensing Online Services Terms (OST) document to see whether the number of add-ons can be reduced at the anniversary of the agreement. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct
A. No change is needed.
B. Microsoft Product List
C. Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR)
D. Microsoft Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Microsoft Volume Licensing Product Use Rights document, commonly referred to as “the PUR” (pronounced”per”), is part of your Microsoft Volume Licensing agreement. When you need to know how to license a particular product or the specifics of what you can do with that product under the terms of your license agreement, generally, the PUR has the information you need. The PUR details use rights for specific products and details the rights that apply to all software licensed through Microsoft Volume Licensing.
* When you purchase a software license through a Microsoft Volume Licensing program, the terms and conditions for how you can use the software are defined in the Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR) document, Product List document, and program agreement.
Incorrect:
Not B: Product List (PL)
Published monthly, the Microsoft Product List (PL) provides information about availability, discontinuations, migration paths, and subscription benefits for Microsoft software and Online Services acquired through Volume Licensing programs.
not D: Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
The Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR) provides details on how products acquired through the Microsoft Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA) may be used.

QUESTION 7
A company has 1,000 desktop computers that run Windows 8.1. The company also has 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company does not use server visualization.
You need to recommend a solution to manage all of the computers and the servers on the network. Which two licenses should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Standard server management license (ML)
C. Microsoft Core CAL Suite
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter server management license (ML)
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing non-virtualized and lightly virtualized servers
C: Need CAL licenses for the clients.
Incorrect:
Not D: System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers

QUESTION 8
A customer plans to implement a data center. All of the servers in the data center will run Windows Server 2012 R2. The customer will manage all virtual servers by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2. The customer plans to be licensed for unlimited virtualization. You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation. What should you recommend that the customer purchase?
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
B. System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
C. System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter
D. Core Infrastructure Server Suite Datacenter
74-678 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers.

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the tasks that the customer can perform through the Microsoft Volume Licensing Center (MVLC). Which three tasks should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. View and manage licenses purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
B. Order on-premises software.
C. View and manage Software Assurance (SA) benefits purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
D. Self-provision Online Services.
E. View and manage licenses purchased through an existing Select Plus agreement.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Volume Licensing Service Center (VLSC) gives you easy access to:
* (C) Activate and consume Software Assurance benefits
* (D) Download products and keys
Volume Licensing benefits
Access all your licensing information in one location View your relationship summary and license summary details Review the status of your enrollments

QUESTION 10
A company named Contoso, Ltd. does not have an active Volume Licensing agreement. Contoso needs to purchase 575 Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 User Subscription Licenses (USLs). Through which agreement should Contoso acquire the licenses?
A. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
B. Open Value Subscription
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Select Plus
74-678 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPSA can benefit organizations with a minimum of 150 seats.

QUESTION 11
A customer is evaluating the purchase of Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise El User Subscription Licenses (USLs) through a Microsoft Online Subscription Agreement (MOSA), or by adding the licenses to an existing Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA). You need to tell the customer why they should purchase the USLs through the MPSA. What should you tell the customer?
A. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional rights.
B. It is easier to manage software assets if they are acquired through one agreement.
C. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional Software Assurance (SA) benefits.
D. License prices are approximately 50 percent less expensive when acquired through the MPSA.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The new Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is a single agreement for your Online Services, software, and Software Assurance purchases across your organization. It can save time and money by combining purchase points for the best price level and reducing the administrative overhead associated with managing multiple agreements.
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Free Microsoft 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(7-18)

QUESTION 7
The Montreal data center experiences a power failure. You need to ensure that all the users can access their mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to implement a solution to meet the security requirement for the temporary employees. You deploy an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster, and then you run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for email messages that contain information about the Fabrikam acquisition. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create an Outlook protection rule.
B. Create a new custom message classification.
C. Modify the registry on all client computers.
D. Modify the Content Filtering settings.
E. Export the Message Classification configuration to an .xml file.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Use the New-MessageClassification cmdlet to create a message classification instance in your organization.
E: After you create a new message classification, you can specify the message classification as a transport rule predicate. Before Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App users can apply the message classification to messages, you must update the end-user systems with the message classification XML file created by the Export-OutlookClassification.ps1 script file. The Export- OutlookClassification.ps1 script file is located in the %ExchangeInstallPath%Scripts directory.
C: Microsoft Office Outlook requires a local file (Classifications.xml) that contains definitions of the message classifications that Microsoft Exchange Server supports before Outlook users can apply message classifications to their messages. You must also create a registry key that enables message classification and references the Classifications.xml file on the Outlook user’s computer.
* From scenario:
Compliance Requirements include:
Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.

QUESTION 10
You need to implement a solution that meets the collaboration requirements. What should you do?
A. Run the Set-CASMailbox cmdlet.
B. Create an organization relationship.
C. Create a new sharing policy.
D. Modify the organization configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Custom recipient MailTips created in the Exchange Server organization of Trey Research must be visible to the users at Fabrikam. The solution must ensure that administrators can define a subset of users who can share their MailTips.
* MailTips Over Organization Relationships
You may want to restrict certain types of MailTips. You can either allow all MailTips to be returned or allow only a limited set that would prevent NDRs. You can configure this setting with the MailTipsAccessLevel parameter on the Set-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet.
Reference: MailTips over organization relationships

QUESTION 11
You need to implement a solution that meets the compliance requirements for the members of the legal department. Which two cmdlets should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-RoleAssignmentPolicy
B. Add-ManagementRoleEntry
C. New-ManagementRoleAssignment
D. New-ManagementRole
E. New-ManagementScope
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Only the users in the legal department must be able to use eDiscovery to view the contents of email messages sent by the finance department users.
/ Users in the legal department use a shared mailbox named Legal. Legal is enabled for In-Place Hold. Legal is the only mailbox on DB2.
We need to assign the role to the legal department users using the New- ManagementRoleAssignment cmdlet. To restrict the eDiscovery access to the finance users emails, we need to create a scope using the New ManagementScope cmdlet.

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution that meets the auditing requirements. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
The following actions must be audited for actions in the Legal mailbox only:
Delegate – Purge mailbox content
Delegate – Transfer file between folders
Administrator – Messages sent by administrator
Administrator – Open any content within the mailbox
* Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
HardDelete: An e-mail is permanently deleted
Move: An e-mail is moved to another folder
MessageBind: An e-mail is opened or viewed in the preview pane
Create: An item (excluding folders) is created in the mailbox (a message is sent, for example)
Reference: Auditing Mailbox Access

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for emailing bank account numbers. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: All users must be notified before they send an email message that contains any five bank account numbers to an external recipient. The users must be able to override the requirement if they have a valid business reason to send the email message.
Transport rules apply actions to messages, most with corresponding action values. RejectUnlessSilentOverride Message is rejected unless the sender has chosen to override the policy restriction. RejectUnlessExplicitOverride This is the same as RejectUnlessSilentOverride, but the sender can also provide a justification for overriding the policy restriction.
Reference: New-TransportRule

QUESTION 14
You need to identify which technologies must be used to meet the security requirements.
Which technologies should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct requirements. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
You need to recommend a solution that supports the planned changes for the public folders. Which four cmdlets should you recommend running in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps

QUESTION 16
You need to configure the Exchange Server UM dial plan for the planned integration of UM and Lync Server. How should you configure the UM dial plan? (To answer, select the appropriate dial plan type and VoIP security mode in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Integrate Unified Messaging (UM) services with the Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
* If you want to integrate Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) with Lync Server 2013, you must perform the following tasks:
/ On the Exchange UM server, create a SIP dial plan based on your organization’s specific
deployment requirements.
/ To encrypt Enterprise Voice traffic, configure the security settings on the Exchange UM SIP dial plan as SIP Secured or Secured.
Note:
* There are three formats or URI types that can be configured on UM dial plans:
/ Telephone Extension (TeleExtn)
/ SIP URI
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a standard protocol for initiating interactive user sessions that involve multimedia elements such as video, voice, chat, and gaming. SIP is a request-to-response based protocol that answers requests from clients and responses from servers.
/ E.164
* When you configure the dial plan to use SIP secured mode, only the SIP signaling traffic will be encrypted, and the RTP media channels will still use TCP, which isn’t encrypted. However, when you configure the dial plan to use Secured mode, both the SIP signaling traffic and the RTP media channels are encrypted. An encrypted signaling media channel that uses Secure Realtime Transport Protocol (SRTP) also uses mutual TLS to encrypt the VoIP data. Reference: UM dial plans

QUESTION 17
You are attempting to resolve the email delivery issue for Fabrikam. You need to identify which certificate is being used by the servers in the Exchange Server organization of Fabrikam. In which directory on EX1 should you review the log files? (To answer, select the appropriate directory in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: After a change to a certificate, users report that email messages sent to Fabrikam are not delivered.
* ProtocolLog
Protocol logging records the SMTP conversations that occur between messaging servers as part of message delivery. These SMTP conversations occur on Send connectors and Receive connectors that exist in the Front End Transport service on Client Access servers, the Transport service on Mailbox servers, and the Mailbox Transport service on Mailbox servers. You can use protocol logging to diagnose mail flow problems.

QUESTION 18
You restore the files of DB3 to EX3. You need to mount DB3 on EX3. The solution must ensure that email messages sent to the users of DB3 while the database was offline are delivered once DB3 is mounted. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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QUESTION 72
A seller’s price is below an appropriate measure of casts. Moreover, the seller has a reasonable prospect of recovering the resulting loss in the future through higher prices or a greater market share. Accordingly, the seller has engaged in:
A. Collusive pricing.
B. Dumping.
C. Predatory pricing.
D. Price discrimination.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is intentionally pricing below cost to eliminate competition and reducesupply. Federal statutes and many state laws prohibit the practice. The U.S.
Supreme Courthas held that pricing is predatory when two conditions are met: 1) the seller’s price is belowan appropriate measure of its costs,” and 2) it has a reasonable prospect of recovering theresulting IOSS through higher prices or greater market share.

QUESTION 73
In which product-mix pricing strategy is it appropriate for the seller to accept any price that exceeds the storage and deliver} casts for the product?
A. By-product pricing.
B. Optional-product pricing.
C. Captive-product pricing.
D. Product-bundle pricing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A by-product is a product of relatively minor importance generated during the production ofone or more other products. Its production entails no additional costs. Any amount receivedabove the storage and delivery. casts for a by-product allows the seller to reduce the mainproduct’s price to make it more competitive.

QUESTION 74
Several surveys paint out that most managers use full product casts, including unit fixed casts and unit variable costs, in developing cast-based pricing. Which one of the following is least associated with cost-based pricing?
A. Price stability.
B. Price justification.
C. Target pricing.
D. Fixed-cost recovery.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A target price is the expected market price of a product, given the company’s knowledge ofits customers and competitors. Hence, under target pricing, the sales price is known beforethe product is developed. Subtracting the unit target profit margin determines the long-termunit target cast. If cost- cutting measures do not permit the product to be made at or below thetarget cast, it will be abandoned.

QUESTION 75
Fulford Company applies the target pricing and costing approach. The following information about costs and revenues of Fulford’s product are available for the year just ended: Fulford plans to increase unit sales to 80,000 by reducing the product’s unit price to US $320. If Fulford desires a unit target operating income of 12CYo, by what amount must it reduce the full cost per unit?
A. US $32.00
B. US $38.40
C. US $70.40
D. US $80.00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unit target operating income is US $38.40 $320 unit target price 12°X0). Hence, the unittarget full cost is US $281.60 $320 – $38.40). The current full cost per unit is US $352.00[($13,200,000 CGS + $7,920,000 other value chain operating costs) – 60,000 units sold], sothe necessary reduction in the full cost per unit is US $70.40 $352.00 – $281.60).

QUESTION 76
A company’s product has an expected 4-year life cycle from research, development, and design through its withdrawal from the market. Budgeted costs are: The company plans to produce 200,000 units and price the product at 125°!a of the wholelife unit cost. Thus, the budgeted unit selling price is:
A. US $15
B. US $31
C. US $36
D. US $45
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whole-life costs include after-purchase costs operating, support, repair, and disposal)incurred by customers as well as life-cycle costs R&D, design, manufacturing, marketing,distribution, and research). Hence, the budgeted unit whole-life cost is US $36 [($2,000,000+ $3,000,000 + $1,200,000 + $1,000,000) – 200,000 units], and the budgeted unit sellingprice is US $45 $36 125CYo).

QUESTION 77
A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible cost. The company is pursuing a cost:
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost focus strategy aims at cost leadership in a particular segment, such as a regionalmarket or a specialty product line. The rationale for a focus strategy is that the narrowermarket can be better served.

QUESTION 78
The dominant firm in a market pursues a market-leader strategy. This strategy may involve
A. Holding the market stable to avoid attracting new competitors.
B. A flank defense to strengthen the firm’s brand.
C. Sending market signals as a mobile defense.
D. Innovations as an offensive strategy.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Constant innovation to improve products and services, control costs, and increase distributioneffectiveness is the basis for a good offensive strategy. The leader must continuouslyimprove the value offered to customers.

QUESTION 79
During the growth stage of a product’s life cycle,
A. The quality of products is poor.
B. New product models and features are introduced.
C. There is little difference between competing products.
D. The quality of the products becomes more variable and products are less differentiated.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the growth stage, sales and profits increase rapidly, cost per customer decreases, customersare early adopters, new competitors enter an expanding market, new product models andfeatures are introduced, and promotion spending declines or remains stable. The firm entersnew market segments and distribution channels and attempts to build brand loyalty andachieve the maximum share of the market. Thus, prices are set to penetrate the market,distribution channels are extended, and the mass market is targeted through advertising. Thestrategy is to advance by these means and by achieving economies of productive scale.

QUESTION 80
In a product’s life cycle, the first symptom of the decline stage is a decline in the:
A. Firm’s inventory levels.
B. Product’s sales.
C. Product’s production cost.
D. Product’s prices.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sales of most product types and brands eventually decrease permanently. This declinemay be slow or rapid. This first symptom of the decline stage of a product’s life cycle triggerssuch other effects as price cutting, narrowing of the product line, and reduction in promotionbudgets.

QUESTION 81
At the introduction stage of an innovative product, the profit growth is normally slow due to:
A. Expensive sales promotion.
B. High competition.
C. A mass market.
D. Available alternatives.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The introduction stage is characterized by slow sales growth and lack of profits because ofthe high expenses of promotion and selective distribution to generate awareness of theproduct and encourage customers to try it. Thus, the per-customer cost is high. Competitorsare few, basic versions of the product are produced, and higher-income customersinnovators) are usually targeted. Cost-plus prices are charged. They may initially be high topermit cost recovery when unit sales are low. The strategy is to infiltrate the market, plan forfinancing to cope with losses, build supplier relations, increase production and marketingefforts, and plan for competition.

QUESTION 82
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the price charged on a consistent basis for a specific product would probably be lowest during which life cycle stage?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the maturity stage, competition is at its greatest and costs are at their lowest. Moreover, firms are engaged in competitive price-cutting measures, resulting in some of thelowest prices seen during a product’s life cycle.

QUESTION 83
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the opportunity for cost reductions would be greatest in which stage of the life cycle?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the growth stage, the opportunity for cost reductions is at its maximum becauseproduction volume is increasing at a high rate. Thus, fixed costs are being
spread over moreunits of production, and the benefits of the learning curve are being realized.

QUESTION 84
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. The manager has asked the auditor for advice about increasing advertising of various products. During which stage of the life cycle would it be appropriate to advertise that the company’s product is the lowest price and best quality of all competitors?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maturity stage is the ideal time for advertising lower prices and superior quality becausethis is the period during a product’s life when competition is greatest. Due to the availabilityof many alternatives or substitutes, a firm has reasons to set itself apart. Because price andquality are both concerns of customers during the maturity stage, it is ideal for the firm todifferentiate its product by advertising low prices and higher quality.

QUESTION 85
A firm buys like-new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is:
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market

D. Operating in a black market.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying tomake a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, theseller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

QUESTION 86
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When thesubsidiary-buyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potentialtariffs. However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower becauseof its higher acquisition cost.

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Free Microsoft 70-486 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 7
You need to implement the Views\RunLog\_CalculatePace.cshtml partial view from Views\Runlog \GetLog.cshtml to display the runner’s average mile pace. How should you implement the view? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 9
You need to implement the map of the runners’ paths. How should you build the video viewer? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 11
You need to ensure that the application uses RunLogRoleProvider custom role provider. How should you modify the web.config file? (To answer, drag the appropriate line of code to the correct location or locations. Each line of code may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your company’ has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is mare that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemyor competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sumof the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, thealgebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game. However, if it is possible for bothplayers to profit, the game is a positive sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffsfor each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and 1` chooseslimited advertising. QC’s payoff is -1 and Y’s is 1. A bank plans to open a branch in one offive locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium,or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presentedin the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 14
If the bank uses the rnaxirna criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the maximax criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that maximizes themaximum profit. The maximum profits for the five locations are A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demandfor bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for eachlocation-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 15
If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select.
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L4.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion,the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes themaximum regret (opportunity cost)the maximum regret for each location is determined fromthe opportunity loss matrix.The maximum regret for each location is the highest number ineach column as indicated below. The location with the minimum regret is L2. If demand is low, L2 has a payoff 2, whereas L1 has a payoff of 7. A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of theselocations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 16
If, in addition to the estimated profits, management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3, 0.4, and 0.3 respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location of L4?
A. 5.50
B. 7.90
C. 7.50
D. 5.00
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The opportunity loss matrix is as follow:
QUESTION 17
During the past few gears, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of U $300. For U $1,000 per month, At US $800 can lease generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings or additional expense) for the year will be:
A. U $ 15,200)
B. US $ 1,267)
C. U $3,200
D. U $7,200
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this experience can be avoided by paying US $1,000 permonth US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the probabilitydistribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages permonth. The company can expect to have, on average, 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 peroutage, the expected costs is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1,000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.
QUESTION 18
Philip enterprises, distributor of compact disks(CDS),is developing its budgeted cost of goods sold for 1998.Philip has developed the following range of sales estimates and associated probabilities for the year: Philip’s cost of goods sold averages 80% of sales. t hat is the expected value of Philip’s 1998 budgeted cost of goods sold?
A. US $85,000
B. US $84,000
C. US $68,000
D. US $67,200
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The expected value is calculated by weighting each sales estimate by the probability of itsoccurrence. Consequently, the expected value of sales is US $84,000 [$60,000 .25) +$85,000 .40) + $100,000 .35)]. Cost of goods sold is therefore US $67,200 800/0 $84,000).
QUESTION 19
The expected value of perfect information is the:
A. Same as the expected profit under certainty.
B. Sum of the conditional profit loss) for the best event of each act times the probability ofeach event occurring.
C. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected opportunity loss.
D. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected monetary valueof the best act under uncertainty:

70-486 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Perfect information permits certainty that a future state of nature will occur. The expectedvalue of perfect information determines the maximum amount a decision
maker is willing topay for information. It is the difference between the expected value without perfectinformation, that is,the expected value of the best action under uncertainty and the expectedvalue under certainty. Under certainty, a decision maker knows in each case which state ofnature will occur and can act accordingly.
QUESTION 20
A chief executive officer CEO) believes that a major competitor may be planning a new campaign. The CEO sends a questionnaire to key personnel asking for original thinking concerning what the new campaign may be. The CEO selects the best possibilities then sends another questionnaire asking for the most likely option. The process employed by the CEO is called the
A. Least squares technique.
B. Delphi technique.
C. Maximum likelihood technique.
D. Optimizing of expected payoffs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Delphi technique is a forecasting or decision-making approach that attempts to avoidgroupthink the tendency of individuals to conform to what they perceive to be theconsensus). The technique allows only written, anonymous communication among groupmembers. Each member takes a position on the problem at hand. A summary of thesepositions is communicated to each member. The process is repeated for several iterations asthe members more toward a consensus. Thus, the Delphi technique is a qualitative, notquantitative, technique.The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home footballgames. The pretzels are sold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Anyunsold pretzels are discarded because they will be stale before the next home game. Theestimated demand for pretzel at the next home football game.
QUESTION 21
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using an expected value approach is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The calculation using an expected value approach weights each possible sales volume by itsprobability. Thus, the estimated demand is 4,400 pretzels. The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home football games. The pretzels aresold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Any unsold pretzels are discardedbecause they will be stale before the next home game. 95. The estimated demand for pretzelat the next home football game. The frequency distribution of the demand for pretzels pegame is presented as follows.
QUESTION 22
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using a deterministic approach based on the most likely outcome is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A deterministic approach assumes that a value is known with certainty. If that value isdeemed to be the most likely outcome, assumed demand will be 5,000 pretzels, Thevolumewith the highest probability 35%). A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee onany given day. If the stand sells soft drinks and the weather i= hot, it will make US $2,600; ifthe weather is cold, the profit will be US $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather ishot, it will make US $1,900: if the weather is cold, the profit will be US $2,000. Theprobability of cold weather on a given day at this time is 60°l%.

QUESTION 23
The expected payoff if the vendor has perfect information is:
A. US $3,900
B. US $2,200
C. US $1,360
D. US $1,960
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The vendor would like to sell coffee on cold days US $2,000) and soft drinks on hot daysUS $2,500). Hot days are expected 40°l0 of the time. Hence, the probability is 40°f0 ofmaking US $2,500 by selling soft drinks. The chance of making US $2,000 by selling coffeeis 600k. The payoff equation is: 4 US $2,600) + .6 $2,000 = US $2,200 A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee on any given day. If the stand sells softdrinks and the weather is hot, it will make US $2,500; if the weather is cold, the profit will beU $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather is hot, it will make US $1,900; if theweather is cold, the profit will be U $2,000. The probability of cold weather on a given day atthis time is 60%.

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Free Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
QUESTION 8
An application receives JSON data in the following format:
70-483 dumps
The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to ensure that the ConvertToName() method returns the JSON input string as a Name object. Which code segment should you insert at line 10?
A. Return ser.ConvertToType<Name>(json);
B. Return ser.DeserializeObject(json);
C. Return ser.Deserialize<Name>(json);
D. Return (Name)ser.Serialize(json);
70-483 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize<T> – Converts the specified JSON string to an object of type T.

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
An application serializes and deserializes XML from streams. The XML streams are in the following format:

70-483 dumps
The application reads the XML streams by using a DataContractSerializer object that is declared by the following code segment:
var ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(Name));
You need to ensure that the application preserves the element ordering as provided in the XML stream. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct locations in the answer area-Each attribute may be used
 once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DataContractAttribute – Specifies that the type defines or implements a data contract and is serializable by a serializer, such as the DataContractSerializer. To make their type serializable, type authors must define a data contract for their type. DataMemberAttribute – When applied to the member of a type, specifies that the member is part of a data contract and is serializable by the DataContractSerializer.
QUESTION 10
You are developing an application. The application converts a Location object to a string by using a method named WriteObject. The WriteObject() method accepts two parameters, a Location object and an XmlObjectSerializer object. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to serialize the Location object as a JSON object. Which code segment should you insert at line 20?
A. New DataContractSerializer(typeof(Location))
B. New XmlSerializer(typeof(Location))
C. New NetDataContractSenalizer()
D. New DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(Location))
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The DataContractJsonSerializer class serializes objects to the JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and deserializes JSON data to objects. Use the DataContractJsonSerializer class to serialize instances of a type into a JSON document and to deserialize a JSON document into an instance of a type.
QUESTION 11
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() from the Person class. Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Internal
B. Protected
C. Private
D. Protected internal
E. Public
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Protected – The type or member can be accessed only by code in the same class or structure, or in a class that is derived from that class.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173121.aspx
The
protected keyword is a member access modifier. A protected member is accessible within its class and by derived class instances.
QUESTION 12
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The DoWork() method must not throw any exceptions when converting the obj object to the IDataContainer interface or when accessing the Data property. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer)obj;
B. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
70-483 pdf
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As – The as operator is like a cast operation. However, if the conversion isn’t possible, as returns null instead of raising an exception.
QUESTION 13
You are creating an application that manages information about zoo animals. The application includes a class named Animal and a method named Save. The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Animal class that uses a constructor that accepts no parameters. You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you define a generic class, you can apply restrictions to the kinds of types that client code can use for type arguments when it instantiates your class. If client code tries to instantiate your class by using a type that is not allowed by a constraint, the result is a compile-time error. These restrictions are called constraints. Constraints are specified by using the where contextual keyword.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You are developing a class named ExtensionMethods. You need to ensure that the ExtensionMethods class implements the IsEmail() method on string objects. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
QUESTION 15
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peals periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 0 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server’ will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peaty periods.
QUESTION 16
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US $1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100c’% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-483 vce
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If bath firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultantprice war will cause bath firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is inevitable whenreduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. The effect is a no-winstrategy. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 17
The arrival time follows which probability distribution?
A. Binomial
B. Chi-Square
C. Poisson
D. Exponential
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: the events arrivals) areindependent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability{of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability {of more thanone event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently} small. If is the average number of eventsin a given interval, k is the number of events, and e is the natural logarithm 2.71828…), theprobability of k is. f K) =k e -k ! A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one onan island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determining the averagewaiting times of customers and has developed a model based on random numbers. The twokey factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath service windows bathrequiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unlessthat window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone teller will always servethe car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached windowwill be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 18
The time that car 3 will have to wait to be serviced:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
70-483 exam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 1 is at the attached window and will require minutes to service. Car 2 must wait for car 1to be serviced minutes the queue + minutes to be serviced = 6 minutes). Car arrived atthe attached window minutes after cars 1 and . It must wait 1 minute for car 1 to be servicedand minutes for car to be serviced, a waiting time of 4 minutes. A bank has two drive-in lanesto serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one on an island. One teller servesbath stations. The bank
is interested in determining the average waiting times of customersand has developed a model based on random numbers. The two key factors are the timebetween successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysisbegins with cars just arriving at bath service windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of servicetime. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unless that window has more carswaiting than the island window. The lone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. Iftwo cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached window will be served before the oneat the island.
QUESTION 19
The time that car 4 will have to wait to be:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 4 arrives at the just-vacated island window 4 minutes after car. It must wait 4 minutesfor car to be serviced.
QUESTION 20
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximin rule.
D. Maxi max rule.
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses thedecision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by riskaverseplayers, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equalgain.

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Free ISC CISSP Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilizes public key cryptography.
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
D. It is a second party authentication system.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). Kerberos is a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
The following answers are incorrect:
It utilizes public key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text. Is incorrect because the passwords are not exchanged but used for encryption and decryption of the keys. It is a second party authentication system. Is incorrect because Kerberos is a third party authentication system, you authenticate to the third party (Kerberos) and not the system you are accessing.
References:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?
A. Audit mechanisms.
B. Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.
C. Authorization.
D. Formal verification of system design.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is a means of being able to track user actions. Through the use of audit logs and other tools the user actions are recorded and can be used at a later date to verify what actions were performed. Accountability is the ability to identify users and to be able to track user actions. The following answers are incorrect: Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria. Is incorrect because the Common Criteria is an international standard to evaluate trust and would not be a factor in System Accountability. Authorization. Is incorrect because Authorization is granting access to subjects, just because you have
authorization does not hold the subject accountable for their actions. Formal verification of system design. Is incorrect because all you have done is to verify the system design
and have not taken any steps toward system accountability.
References:
OIG CBK Glossary (page 778)
QUESTION 5
What is Kerberos?
A. A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.
B. A trusted third-party authentication protocol.
C. A security model.
D. A remote authentication dial in user server.
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is correct because that is exactly what Kerberos is.
The following answers are incorrect:
A three-headed dog from Egyptian mythology. Is incorrect because we are dealing with Information Security and not the Egyptian mythology but the Greek Mythology. A security model. Is incorrect because Kerberos is an authentication protocol and not just a security model. A remote authentication dial in user server. Is incorrect because Kerberos is not a remote authentication dial in user server that would be called RADIUS.
QUESTION 6
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
A. Public Key cryptography.
B. Secret Key cryptography.
C. El Gamal cryptography.
D. Blowfish cryptography.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It
  is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be SYMMETRIC (or secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or ASYMMETRIC (aka ‘Public Key’) in which encryption and decryption keys differ. ‘Public Key’ methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric
key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method. For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block
is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one ‘data unit’ (typically 1 byte) at a time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm. Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
QUESTION 7
A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user’s identity is called a:
A. PIN
B. User ID
C. Password
D. Challenge
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PIN Stands for Personal Identification Number, as the name states it is a combination of numbers. The following answers are incorrect: User ID This is incorrect because a Userid is not required to be a number and a Userid is only used to establish identity not verify it.
Password. This is incorrect because a password is not required to be a number, it could be any combination of characters. Challenge. This is incorrect because a challenge is not defined as a number, it could be anything.
QUESTION 8
Individual accountability does not include which of the following?
A. unique identifiers
B. policies & procedures
C. access rules

D. audit trails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Accountability would not include policies & procedures because while important on an effective security program they cannot be used in determing accountability.
The following answers are incorrect:
Unique identifiers. Is incorrect because Accountability would include unique identifiers so that you can identify the individual. Access rules. Is incorrect because Accountability would include access rules to define access violations. Audit trails. Is incorrect because Accountability would include audit trails to be able to trace violations or attempted violations.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?
A. Operators are not permitted modify the system time.
B. Programmers are permitted to use the system console.
C. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.
D. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.
CISSP vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is an example of Separation of Duties because operators are prevented from modifying the system time which could lead to fraud. Tasks of this nature should be performed by they system administrators. AIO defines Separation of Duties as a security principle that splits up a critical task among two or more individuals to ensure that one person cannot complete a risky task by himself.
The following answers are incorrect:
Programmers are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because programmers should not be permitted to use the system console, this task should be performed by operators. Allowing programmers access to the system console could allow fraud to occur so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks. Is incorrect because operators should be able to mount tapes and disks so this is not an example of Separation of Duties. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because operators should be able to use the system console so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (page 98 – 101)
AIOv3 Access Control (page 182)
QUESTION 10
An access control policy for a bank teller is an example of the implementation of which of the following?
A. Rule-based policy
B. Identity-based policy
C. User-based policy
D. Role-based policy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The position of a bank teller is a specific role within the bank, so you would implement a role- based policy.
The following answers are incorrect:
Rule-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on rules and not the role of a of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
Identity-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on the identity of an individual and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization. User-based policy. Is incorrect because this would be based on the user and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
QUESTION 11
Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?
A. Mechanisms based on IP addresses
B. Mechanism with reusable passwords
C. One-time password mechanism.
D. Challenge response mechanism.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Anything based on a fixed IP address would be a problem for mobile users because their location and its associated IP address can change from one time to the next. Many providers will assign a new IP every time the device would be restarted. For example an insurance adjuster using a laptop to file claims online. He goes to a different client each time and the address changes every time he connects to the ISP.
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
The term MOBILE in this case is synonymous with Road Warriors where a user is constantly traveling and changing location. With smartphone today that may not be an issue but it would be an issue for laptops or WIFI tablets. Within a carrier network the IP will tend to be the same and would change rarely. So this question is more applicable to devices that are not cellular devices but in some cases this issue could affect cellular devices as well.
The following answers are incorrect:
Mechanism with reusable password. This is incorrect because reusable password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. They are the least secure and change only at specific interval one-time password mechanism. This is incorrect because a one-time password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. Many are based on a clock and not on the IP address of the user Challenge response mechanism. This is incorrect because challenge response mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users.
QUESTION 12
Organizations should consider which of the following first before allowing external access to their LANs via the Internet?
A. Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms.
B. Plan for protecting the modem pool.
C. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information.
D. Plan for considering proper authentication options.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Before a LAN is connected to the Internet, you need to determine what the access controls mechanisms are to be used, this would include how you are going to authenticate individuals that may access your network externally through access control.
The following answers are incorrect:
Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms. This is incorrect because locking the workstations have no impact on the LAN or Internet access. Plan for protecting the modem pool. This is incorrect because protecting the modem pool has no impact on
the LAN or Internet access, it just protects the modem. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information. This is incorrect because the question asks what should be done first. While important your primary concern should be focused on security.

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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 6
Your current deployment has multiple Orion NPM servers monitoring multiple locations from a single site. This is producing inaccurate data and high WAN bandwidth utilization. What are the two most efficient ways to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. deploy Orion NPMat each remote location
B. deploy Orion Enterprise Operations Console
C. deploy an additional Orion Poller
D. deploy an additional Orion Web Server
E. deploy an Orion Hot Standby
200-155 exam Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7
How does the Orion Universal Device Poller (UnDP) monitor a device’s statistics that are Not included in the standard Orion NPM MIB database?
A. by manually associating the device’sOID to Orion
B. by keeping a copy of the device’s MIB on the Orion NPM Server
C. by automatically searching the common MIB repositories and updating Orion
D. by manually compiling the MIB into the Orion MIB database
E. by manually compiling the OID into the Orion MIB database
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which protocol should a network engineer enable on routers and switches to collect utilization statistics?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. WMI
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
A network engineer is enabling SNMP on their network devices and needs to ensure it will use message integrity. Which version of SNMP should they use?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2c
C. SNMPv3
D. SNMPv4
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A network engineer notices the Syslog server’s database is growing significantly in size due to the large number of devices sending Syslog messages. What should the engineer do to control database growth?
A. configure the Syslog server to discard unwanted messages
B. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use TCP-based Syslog

C. configure the devices and the Syslog server to use SNMPv3
D. configure the Syslog server to capture SNMP traps instead of Syslog
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You have recently implemented a VoIP infrastructure within the company network. You are receiving trouble tickets indicating calls are dropping between their New York and San Francisco offices. Which two IP service level agreement (SLA) measurements should you use to identify the cause of the issue?
A. latency
B. SIP
C. NetFlow
D. available bandwidth
E. jitter
Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 12
Which two performance metrics can be affected by proper QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. jitter
B. shaping
C. marking
D. queuing
E. latency
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 13
Which network protocols are used by Solar Winds products during network discoveries?
A. ICMP and SMTP
B. DHCP and TFTP
C. PPTP and IMAP
D. ICMP and SNMP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which two management protocols should you use to measure the effectiveness of your QoS implementation? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SNMP
C. NetFlow
D. WMI
E. SSHv2
200-155 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 15
Which management protocol should you use to analyze network traffic in and out of a router interface?
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. IP service level agreement (SLA)

D. sFlow
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Users are complaining that a network connection is slow. How should SNMP be used to verify performance of the interface?
A. verify bandwidth usage via if InOctets
B. verify status via the if Table
C. verify that SNMP agent is responding
D. verify the performance via if Speed
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Orion NPM is monitoring the performance of DS-3 utilizing standard MIBs in the ifTable. Occasionally, the reported traffic rates for this interface spike well above45 Mbps. What is the most likely cause?
A. heavy network traffic
B. carrier misconfiguration
C. counter rollovers
D. database issues
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Orion NPM is using SNMP to poll a routerand track interface traffic rates. The data are Collected every 5 minutes, and the most recent values collected for a specific interface are 1,000,000 and 2,000,000 octets. What is the approximate average rate of traffic for this interface?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 3 Kbps
C. 16 Kbps
D. 26 Kbps
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When using a network management system (NMS) to monitor network interfaces on a router, you notice that statistics are wrong after an interface card is physically removed from the device. What has most likely caused this problem?
A. interface re-indexing
B. device configuration
C. counter rollovers
D. access lists
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which two reporting requirements should you consider when specifying data roll-up settings for a network management system (NMS)? (Choose two.)
A. data encryption
B. data format
C. data granularity
D. monitoring coverage

E. data retention
200-155 vce Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 21
Which advantage do SNMP traps and Syslog have over SNMP polling?
A. reliability of event detection
B. ability to poll events in real-time
C. ease of configuration
D. speed of event detection
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
How can you use a network management system (NMS) to ensure service level agreement (SLA) parameters are realistic for your environment?
A. increase data collection period
B. configuredata summarization
C. reducedata retention period
D. baseline network performance
200-155 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Your service level agreement (SLA) dictates that you must be able to notify the appropriate parties when systems are down for over2 minutes and report on data for the last120 days. Your network management system (NMS) has been configured to collect status every 10minutes and summarizes and retains data for 90 days. Which two settings should you change in the NMS to meet the business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. increase data retention to 120 days
B. configure status polling to occur every5 minutes
C. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 120 days
D. configure status polling to occur every minute
E. summarize hourly data into weekly data every 90 days
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 24
What should you do to track whether a new configuration has alleviated slow network performance?
A. compare ICMP availability before and after the change
B. compare application responsiveness before and after the change
C. monitor the affected devices for stability
D. monitor bandwidth utilization on affected interfaces
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
The IT budgeting department has asked you for reports that will help them better plan for increases in monthly recurring costs. Which report should you set up to help the IT udgeting department meet this objective?
A. router inventory
B. WAN interface utilization
C. LAN interface utilization

D. available switch ports
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
IT management wants to know how they can lower their total power consumption by consolidating equipment and shutting off unnecessary equipment. Which type of report can you create to help them plan for this?
A. bandwidth utilization
B. available switch ports
C. router CPU utilization
D. total NetFlow endpoints
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The IT planning department has asked for a report to help them understand when they need to implement IPv6. Which report would offer them the greatest amount of relevant information?
A. unique NetFlow exporters
B. DHCP server CPU utilization
C. number of subnets
D. IP address utilization trends
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
You are planning a network management implementation where the network has several low bandwidth WAN links. Which two network management protocols are most likely to cause heavy traffic on WANs and should therefore be considered carefully before deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Syslog
B. SSH
C. SMTP
D. NetFlow
E. ICMP
200-155 vce Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 29
Which two sources provide detailed visibility into router interface traffic? (Choose two.)
A. SNMP statistics
B. SNMP traps
C. NetFlow
D. Syslog
E. CDP
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 30. What function does OSTYPE in the generic-linux.mc macro provide during Sendmail installation?
A. It optimizes Sendmail to properly use memory allocations specific to an operating system
B. It sets some path names specifically for the operating system
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to for processing
D. It specifies the operating system of connecting mail servers
E. It denies privileges to operating systems with Sendmail security issues
200-155 exam Answer: B
QUESTION 31. What does the divert command in the generic-linux.mc file do?

A. It handles all user .forward files
B. It controls the addition of text from the generic-linux.mc file to the output file or internal text buffers
C. It redirects e-mail to a third party mail server
D. It changes the header information of incoming messages and resends them
E. It copies e-mail locally and sends it to another mail server
Answer: B
QUESTION 32. Which of the following will result if “dnl” is included after each command in the generic-linux.mc file?
A. The text from “dnl” until the end of that line is ignored
B. DNS will not be used in resolving the address to the host mail server
C. Mail can only be sent to servers named in the /etc/hosts and /etc/networks files
D. All commands that do not have “dnl” after each line are applied locally
E. The command on the next line is not executed
200-155 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION 33. An e-mail system has been configured to use the DNS Blacklist (DNSBL) service. What additional step is performed by the system as a result?
A. It checks the user’s e-mail account against the deny spam database Web site
B. It sends a list of known spammers to a recipient requesting the information to be added to their mail filters
C. It controls which applications mail can be sent to based on the DNSBL database
D. It keeps track of recipients who requested to be removed from mass mailings
E. It checks the IP of each connection from which it is receiving mail against entries in the DNSBL database
Answer: E

QUESTION 34.Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user’s password is not changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
200-155 pdf Answer: C
QUESTION 35.RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B
QUESTION 36.When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user’s account must specify ‘sdshell’ to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
“securid_pam” as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are

contained in the pam.conf file.
200-155 vce Answer: D
QUESTION 37.To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
“cn=securid” to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

QUESTION 38. Which of the following is not a valid delivery line for .qmail?
A. # this is a comment
B. |/usr/bin/vacation jsmith
C. &joesmith
D. &[email protected]
E. /home/jsmith/mail/archive
200-155 exam Answer: C

 

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Free Cisco 300-209 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

What is the problem with the IKEv2 site-to-site VPN tunnel?
A. incorrect PSK
B. crypto access list mismatch
C. incorrect tunnel group
D. crypto policy mismatch
E. incorrect certificate
300-209 exam 
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
QUESTION 2
What are three benefits of deploying a GET VPN? (Choose three.)
A. It provides highly scalable point-to-point topologies.
B. It allows replication of packets after encryption.
C. It is suited for enterprises running over a DMVPN network.
D. It preserves original source and destination IP address information.
E. It simplifies encryption management through use of group keying.
F. It supports non-IP protocols.
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
QUESTION 3
Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?
A. HIPPA DES
B. AES-128
C. RC4-128
D. AES-256
300-209 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which technology must be installed on the client computer to enable users to launch applications from a Clientless SSL VPN?
A. Java
B. QuickTime plug-in
C. Silverlight
D. Flash
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
300-209 dumps

The network administrator is adding a new spoke, but the tunnel is not passing traffic. What could cause this issue?
A. DMVPN is a point-to-point tunnel, so there can be only one spoke.
B. There is no EIGRP configuration, and therefore the second tunnel is not working.
C. The NHRP authentication is failing.
D. The transform set must be in transport mode, which is a requirement for DMVPN.
E. The NHRP network ID is incorrect.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 6 CORRECT TEXT
One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB. Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing any data. As well as size should be increased online.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equal-sized chunks known as Physical Extents (PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let’s start with some basic definitions:
* Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
* Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs. Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
* Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
* Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var on an LV.
* Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the commands that you’ll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. resize2fs /dev/vg0/lv1 ¨¤ to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
QUESTION 7 CORRECT TEXT
Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

7. Press w to write on partitions table.
8. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.
9. Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda? Or mke2fs -j /dev/hda? ¨¤ To create ext3 filesystem
10. vi /etc/fstab
Write: /dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2
QUESTION 8 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also: mount /dev/hda? /data
You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don’t know the root password. Change the root password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don’t know the root’s password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
QUESTION 9 CORRECT TEXT
There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But you don’t have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time. # echo “1” >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf ¨¤ when System Reboot on next time, etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file /etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter. net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
QUESTION 10 CORRECT TEXT
You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 on your System. While start the system, it’s giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X Window System.

300-209 exam Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window)./tmp is full ornotQuota is already reachedVideo card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp ¨¤ /tmp is full remove the unnecessary filequota username ¨¤ if quota is alread reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.Boot the System in runlevel 3.¨¤ you can pass the
Kernel Argument from boot loader.Use command: system-config-display ¨¤ It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card, resolution etc.Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
QUESTION 11 CORRECT TEXT
There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in
192.168.0.0/24 Network. One RHEL 5 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server. How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network’s Host?
300-209 dumps Answer and Explanation:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254 OR vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
QUESTION 12 CORRECT TEXT
Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda ¨¤ To create new partition.
2. Type n ¨¤ For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M ¨¤ You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name. Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

12. mkswap /dev/hda?¨¤ To create Swap File system on partition.
13. swapon /dev/hda?¨¤ To enable the Swap space from partition.
14. free -m ¨¤ Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.
15. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0
16. Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
QUESTION 13 CORRECT TEXT
You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50 servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from allservers into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log from otherhost configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS=”-m 0 -r” Where
-m 0 disables ‘MARK’ messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart
QUESTION 14 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving the debug RHCT exam. The examiner told you that the password of root is redhat. When you tried to login displays the error message and redisplayed the login screen. You changed the root password, again unable to login as a root. How will you make Successfully Login as a root.
300-209 pdf Answer and Explanation:
When root unable to login into the system think:
1. Is password correct?
2. Is account expired?
3. Is terminal Blocked?
Do these Steps:Boot the System on Single user mode.Change the passwordCheck the account expire date by using chage -l root command. If account is expired, set net expire date: chage -E “NEVER” root
1. Check the file /etc/securetty ¨¤ Which file blocked to root login from certain terminal
2. If terminal is deleted or commented write new or uncomment.
3. Reboot the system and login as a root.
QUESTION 15 CORRECT TEXT
You are giving RHCT Exam and in your Exam paper there is a question written, make successfully ping to 192.168.0.254.
Answer and Explanation:
In Network problem thinks to check:
1. IP Configuration: use ifconfig command either IP is assigned to interface or not?

2. Default Gateway is set or not?
3. Hostname is set or not?
4. Routing problem is there?
5. Device Driver Module is loaded or not?
6. Device is activated or not?
Check In this way:
1. use ifconfig command and identify which IP is assigned or not.
2. cat /etc/sysconfig/network ¨¤ What, What is written here. Actually here are these parameters
NETWORKING=yes or no
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
HOSTNAME=?
NISDOMAIN=?
-Correct the file
QUESTION 16  Use vi /etc/sysconfig/network-scirpts/ifcfg-eth0 and check the proper options
DEVICE=eth0
ONBOOT=yes
BOOTPROTO=static
IPADDR=x.x.x.x
NETMAKS=x.x.x.x
GATEWAY=x.x.x.x
4. Use service network restart or start command
QUESTION 20 CORRECT TEXT
Set the Hostname station?.example.com where ? is your Host IP Address.
300-209 vce Answer and Explanation:
1. hostname station?.example.com ¨¤ This will set the host name only for current session. To set hostname permanently.
2. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
HOSTNAME=station?.example.com
3. service network restart
QUESTION 21 CORRECT TEXT
The System you are using is for NFS (Network File Services). Some important data are shared from your system. Make automatically start the nfs and portmap services at boot time.
Answer and Explanation:
We can control the services for current session and for next boot time also. For current Session,we use service servicename start or restart or stop or status. For automatically on next reboot time:
1. chkconfig servicename on or off
eg: chkconfig nfs on
chkconfig portmap on or ntsysv
Select the nfs and portmap services.
2. Reboot the system and identify whether services are running or not.

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Free Cisco 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question No : 9 If one has a Service Health dashboard widget included on a dashboard, will all newly created Services automatically appear on that dashboard widget?
A. Yes, always.
B. It depends on whether all of the segments initialize their baseline.
C. It depends on what criteria was used when defining the dashboard widget.
D. It depends on which user defined and committed the Service.
E. It depends on how many Services have already been configured.
400-251 exam 
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
What is the minimum number of physical boxes involved in a Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: C
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
Which three statements about RLDP are true? (Choose three)
A. It can detect rogue Aps that use WPA encryption
B. It detects rogue access points that are connected to the wired network
C. The AP is unable to serve clients while the RLDP process is active
D. It can detect rogue APs operating only on 5 GHz
E. Active Rogue Containment can be initiated manually against rogue devices detected on the wired network
F. It can detect rogue APs that use WEP encryption
400-251 dumps 
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
What are the two technologies that support AFT? (Choose two)
A. SNAT
B. NAT-6to4
C. DNAT
D. NAT-PT
E. NAT-PMP
F. NAT64
Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 13
Which option describes the purpose of the RADIUS VAP-ID attribute?
A. It specifies the ACL ID to be matched against the client

B. It specifies the WLAN ID of the wireless LAN to which the client belongs
C. It sets the minimum bandwidth for the connection
D. It sets the maximum bandwidth for the connection
E. It specifies the priority of the client
F. It identifies the VLAN interface to which the client will be associated
400-251 pdf 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statement about PVLAN port types are true? (Choose two)
A. A community port can send traffic to community port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
B. An isolated port can send and receive traffic only to and from promiscuous ports.
C. An isolated port can receive traffic from promiscuous port in an community on its broadcast domain, but can send traffic only to port in its own community.
D. A promiscuous port can send traffic promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
E. A community port can send traffic to promiscuous port in other communities on its broadcast domain.
F. A Promiscuous port can send traffic to all ports within a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BF
QUESTION 15
Which two statement about DTLS are true? (choose two)
A. Unlike TLS, DTLS support VPN connection with ASA.
B. It is more secure that TLS.
C. When DPD is enabled DTLS connection can automatically fall back to TLS.
D. It overcomes the latency and bandwidth problem that can with SSL.
E. IT come reduce packet delays and improve application performance.
F. It support SSL VPNs without requiring an SSL tunnel.
400-251 vce 
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. If you apply the given command to a Cisco device running IOS or IOS XE, which two statements about connections to the HTTP server on the device are true?(Choose two)
400-251 dumps
A. The device will close each connection after 90 seconds even if a connection is actively processing a request.
B. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or 90 seconds with activity.
C. Connections will close after 60 seconds or as soon as the first request is processed.
D. When you apply the command , the device will immediately close any existing connections that have been open for longer than 90 seconds.
E. Connections will close after 60 seconds without activity or as soon as the first request is processed.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION NO: 17
On Cascade Profiler, which of the following are configurable from the Configuration> User Interface Preferences interface? (Select 4)
A. Default Host Group Type to use on the User Interface and Reports
B. Whether hosts will be displayed by IP address or DNS/DHCP hostname
C. User’s Timezone to use for the User Interface and Reports
D. Option to control whether bandwidth is reported in Bits or Bytes
E. Host group definitions for mapping IP subnets into Custom host groups
400-251 exam Answer: A,B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
Outgoing Mail Server (SMTP) Settings enable Cascade Profiler to: (Select 2)
A. receive mail from others.
B. send reports.
C. send disk failure notifications.
D. send alerts.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 19
Which Cascade product runs under Riverbed Service Platform (RSP)?
A.
Sensor-VE
B.Gateway-VE
C.
Express RSP
D.
Pilot
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
From Cascade Pilot, reports may include:
A. One or all views from the main workspace.
B. Notes entered associated with a view.
C. Analyst and Client information entered.
D. A and B.
E. A, B and C.
Answer: E
Explanation:

Question No : 21 To which business objects can you add customer-specific fields using the Implementation Guide (IMG)? (Choose two)
A. Invoices
B. Product categories
C. Unit of measures
D. Shopping carts
400-251 pdf 
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 22 What SAP technology is used for the user interface on the SRM server 7.0?
A. Internet Transaction Server
B. mattext644
C. Java WebDynpro
D. ABAP WebDynpro
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 23  Which of following are external business partners? (Choose two)
A. Contact person
B. Bidder
C. Ship-to address
D. Invoice recipient
E. Purchasing company
400-251 vce 
Answer: A,B
Question No : 24 Where do you define the mandatory attributes for a vendor?
A. Organizational plan
B. Vendor group
C. Product category
D. Business partner (vendor)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25 Which master data is maintained in the SRM system?
A. Business partners
B. Cost centers
C. Purchasing info records
D. Asset master data
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 26  What is used for downloading product categories from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. CRM Middleware
B. ALE Distribution
C. Transaction COMM_HIERARCHY
D. Transaction BBPGETVD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 27 What do you need to consider when replicating master data from SAP ERP to SAP SRM?
A. Customizing objects must be replicated before business objects.
B. Materials and service masters replicated from ERP use the same product type in SRM.
C. IDocs are used to replicate materials from ERP.
D. Units of Measure (UoM) cannot be replicated from ERP using CRM Middleware.
400-251 dumps 
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 28  What do you activate to enable the administrator troubleshooting issues related to SRM objects (for example, shopping carts, purchase orders)?
A. Business transaction event (BTE)
B. Administrator console
C. Objects for synchronization
D. Application monitor
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 29  Requisitions were transferred from ECC 6.0 EhP04 to SRM 7.0 using SOA, but are missing from the sourcing work list. Which transaction in SRM can you use to troubleshoot this
problem?
A. SLG1
B. WE05
C. SXMB_MONI
D. BD87
400-251 pdf 
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30  Your customer would like to use vendor and purchasing organization to determine the backend system for follow-on documents. What is a valid solution for this requirement?
A. This is not possible in the standard system and requires a modification.
B. Since SAP SRM 7.0 you can define this on the function tab of the purchasing
organization within the organizational plan.
C. Maintain the customizing table Define Backend Systems respectively.
D. Use the respective Business Add-In (BAdI) and implement a specific coding.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 31 During testing you discover that a confirmation created in SAP SRM did not generate a goods receipt posting in SAP ERP as expected.
Which transaction could be used to troubleshoot this problem?
A. BBP_BW_SC2
B. SXMB_MONI
C. SMQ2
D. WE05
QUESTION NO: 32
Within Cascade Pilot, how are views used to analyze a trace file? (Select 2)
A. Drag the trace file on the View to apply the View.
B. Right-click the View item and select “Apply with Filter”.
C. Drag a View on the trace file to apply the selected View.
D. Select the View and the trace file, and double-click the trace file.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 33 Some common protocols, which may be observed on a network with visibility tools, include:
A. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/445
B. HTTP over TCP/80 and HTTPS over TCP/443
C. HTTP over TCP/443 and HTTPS over TCP/80
D. HTTP over TCP/445 and HTTPS over TCP/80
E. HTTP over TCP/88 and HTTP over TCP/444
400-251 vce 
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
Which of the following supports the largest number of Cascade analytics?
A. Express
B. Standard Profiler
C. Enterprise Profiler
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
How do you configure a new user for the Cascade Shark appliance?
A. From the User Management section of the Web Interface
B. From the Basic Settings page of the Web Interface
C. From the Users menu of Cascade Pilot
D. From the Advanced Settings page of the Web Interface
400-251 exam 
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What are the default credentials to log into the Cascade Shark appliance Web Interface?
A. admin/admin
B. root/sharkappliance
C. root/root
D. root/riverbed
E. admin/cacetech
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, what format can be used for a Dashboard Content Block? (Select 3)
A. Connection Graph
B. Detailed Flow List
C. Table
D. Pie Chart
E. Line Graph
400-251 dumps Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:

400-251 dumps

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