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CompTIA Network+ ( N10-007) Certification Exam Details:

Network+ ensures an IT professional has the knowledge and skills to:

  • Design and implement functional networks
  • Configure, manage, and maintain essential network devices
  • Use devices such as switches and routers to segment network traffic and create resilient networks
  • Identify benefits and drawbacks of existing network configurations
  • Implement network security, standards, and protocols
  • Troubleshoot network problems
  • Support the creation of virtualized networks

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QUESTION 1
An organization recently installed a firewall on the network. Employees must be able to send and receive email from a
POP3 server. In which of the following ways should the firewall be configured? (Select TWO).
A. Allow TCP port 23
B. Allow TCP port 25
C. Allow TCP port 110
D. Allow UDP port 25
E. Allow UDP port 110
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
A technician arrives at a new building to find cabling has been run and terminated, but only the wall ports have been
labeled. Which of the following tools should be utilized to BEST facilitate labeling the patch panel?
A. Tone generator
B. Cable tester
C. Multimeter
D. Loopback adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The length of an IPv6 address is:
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Zach, a technician, suspects a duplicate IP address assignment on the network. Which of the following resources can
be used to verify this problem?
A. Network map
B. Environmental monitor
C. Placement map
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Jeff, a network technician, is installing a wireless router. Which of the following should Jeff consider to get the BEST
signal strength?
A. WAP placement
B. PoE devices
C. MAC filtering
D. Encryption type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network technician is implementing a solution on the network to hide the workstation internal IP addresses across a
WAN. Which of the following is the technician configuring?
A. QoS
B. DMZ
C. RIP
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols is used to transmit outgoing email?
A. RDP
B. NTP
C. POP3
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following cables has the MOST twists per inch?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAY5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The software that allows a machine to run multiple operating systems at once is called the:
A. Server manager
B. Hypervisor
C. Boot loader
D. Partition manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following protocols are used for accessing a command line terminal session for management purposes?
(Select TWO).
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. SSH
E. RDP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following MUST be implemented to share metrics between routing protocols within the same router?
A. Routing loop
B. Routing table
C. Route redistribution
D. Dynamic routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network technician is trying to terminate CAT5 modular jacks. Which of the following tools would be MOST
appropriate for this scenario?
A. Crimper
B. OTDR
C. Throughput tester
D. Punch down tool
Correct Answer: D

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CompTIA IT Fundamentals (FC0-U61) Certification Exam Details:

  • Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
  • Exam Code: FC0-U61
  • Exam Price: $119 (USD)
  • Duration: 60 mins
  • Number of Questions: 75
  • Passing Score: 650 / 900

Topics Covered in CompTIA FC0-U61 Certification Exam:

  • IT Concepts and Terminology (17%)
  • Infrastructure (22%)
  • Applications and Software (18%)
  • Software Development (12%)
  • Database Fundamentals (11%)
  • Security (20%)

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QUESTION 1
A small company wants to set up a server that is accessible from the company network as well as the Internet. Which of
the following is MOST important to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely?
A. The quality of the computer used to connect
B. A security method of allowing connections
C. The employees\\’ home ISP speeds
D. The geographical location of the employees
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be
completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.
B. Enable task scheduling.
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which of the following situations should there be come expectation of privacy?
A. Posting a comment on a friend\\’s social media page
B. Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site
C. Posting a comment on a video sharing site
D. Sending email and pictures to a close relative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands
should the administrator use?
A. SELECT
B. INSERT
C. DELETE
D. UPDATE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Check Knowledge Base.
B. Search local logs.
C. Research possible theories.
D. Question users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a wireless communication that requires devices to be within 6in of each other to transfer
information?
A. Infrared
B. NFC
C. Bluetooth
D. WiFi
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the FASTEST transfer rate?
A. 1001Kbps
B. 110Mbps
C. 1.22Gbps
D. 123Mbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local
(intranet) pages. Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
A. Renew the IP address.
B. Configure the browser proxy settings.
C. Clear the browser cache.
D. Disable the pop-up blocker
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a
computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed?
A. Algorithm
B. Software
C. Pseudocode
D. Flowchart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an advantage of installing an application to the cloud?
A. Data is not stored locally.
B. Support is not required.
C. Service is not required.
D. Internet access is not required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
A. ASCII
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Unicode
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the basic computing operations?
A. Input, process, output, and feedback
B. Input, output, storage, and feedback
C. Input, process, and output
D. Input, process, output, and storage
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to execute a program? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. UNIX
D. Windows Server 2012
E. Android
F. Linux
Correct Answer: CF

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QUESTION 1
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3709.8968
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070.AB01
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
GUI? (Choose two.)
A. QoS settings
B. IP address of one or more access points
C. SSID
D. profile name
E. management interface settings
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
A. It drops the traffic.
B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
C. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
D. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf

QUESTION 6
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
B. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch.
C. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
D. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism
categories on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

 

QUESTION 10
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
B. The two routers share the same interface IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.
C. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.
D. Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is loadbalanced between them.
E. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN
Controller?
A. local
B. mesh
C. flexconnect
D. sniffer
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q12

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Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to
install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
A. platform-as-a-service
B. network-as-a-service
C. software-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service
Correct Answer: D

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CCNP 2020 Change

Cisco certification exam policy after the 24th of Feb, 2020,

To become CCNP certified in any track you need to pass only two exams and no valid CCNA certification required.

The two exams are,

  • The Core Exam
  • The Concentration Exam.
CCNP 2020

Suppose you want to get CCNP certification in security, then you must pass, core exam –350-701 SCOR.

Let’s talk about Cisco 350-701 SCOR

The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications.

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QUESTION 1
Which API is used for Content Security?
A. NX-OS API
B. IOS XR API
C. OpenVuln API
D. AsyncOS API
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma12-0/api/b_SMA_API_12/test_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Mail Submission Agent
B. Mail Transfer Agent
C. Mail Delivery Agent
D. Mail User Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Windows supplicant connected to SW2 cannot establish HTTP session using FQDN. Based on the provided outputs,
what could be the potential issue?

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q3

A. Issue with the DACL pushed for the session.
B. Issue with assigned SGT to the session.
C. User is not authenticated.
D. MAB should be used for port authentication and authorization.
E. Issue with assigned VLAN to the session.
F. User is not authorized.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?
A. cross-site scripting
B. water holing
C. DDoS
D. buffer overflow
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buffer_overflow

QUESTION 5
Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?
A. transparent
B. redirection
C. forward
D. proxy gateway
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html

QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise-owned storage?
A. by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs
B. by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server
C. by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal
D. by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer
also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or
WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?
A. quality of service
B. time synchronization
C. network address translations
D. intrusion policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. phishing
B. brute force
C. man-in-the-middle
D. DDOS
E. tear drop
Correct Answer: BC

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300-710 SNCF — Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall (SSNGFW) and Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation IPS (SSFIPS)
300-715 SISE — Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (SISE)
300-720 SESA — Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
300-725 SWSA — Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)
300-730 SVPN — Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN)
300-735 SAUTO — Implementing Automation for Cisco Security Solutions (SAUI)

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QUESTION 1
Which three features does an ASA 5506-X appliance with FirePOWER Services provide? (Choose three.)
A. reliable visibility
B. data loss prevention
C. NGIPS
D. next generation firewall
E. URL filtering
F. Talos
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which option is the best example of how Cisco solution enable customer\\’s business?
A. faster threat identification
B. better ability to scale and alter your environment
C. best continuous analysis
D. only comprehensive policy enforcement tool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company?
A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs
B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup,
management, and maintenance.
C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced
protection against new threats.
D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco
provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three options must a customer look for when choosing a security solution provider? (Choose three.)
A. delivers better partner and customer support
B. offers more than just niche products
C. is committed to security
D. generates higher margins on each sale
E. provides solutions at the lowest cost
F. prioritizes one security solution above all else
G. creates new market opportunities
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which component of NGFW and NGIPS provides a unified image that includes the Cisco ASA features and FirePOWER
Services?
A. Firepower Threat Defense
B. Meraki MX
C. Next GenerationlPS
D. Cloudlock
E. Advanced Malware Protection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning
resources and support?
A. Be the first to receive new innovations
B. Take advantage of incentives programs
C. Access 24-hour support around the word
D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three options does Cisco provide to customers for complete protection againist current security threat? (choose
three)
A. Threat-centric defense
B. Sporadic application analysis
C. Accelerated threat identification
D. Enhanced remediation
E. Accelerated threat identification
F. Manual security intelligence updates
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 8
Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. enforced device security policies with Meraki
B. CRD and Network Analytics
C. enhanced access and usage control with ISE
D. AnyConect
E. URL filtering
F. secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time?
A. network control
B. investigation
C. threat protection
D. anomaly detection
E. granular visibility
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is
scalable?
A. FirePOWER 2100 Series
B. ASA 7000 Series
C. FirePOWER 8000 Series
D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
E. Cisco 800 Series ISR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which component of AMP provides the details that customers need to address problems after a breach is identified?
A. context awareness
B. file sandboxing
C. rapid remediation
D. continuous analysis
E. network control
Correct Answer: C

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Oracle 1Z0-074 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Examine these statements:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q1

Which statement is true?
A. Statements 2 and 3 will validate the conversion
B. Only statement 3 will validate the conversion
C. Only statement 1 will validate the conversion
D. Statement 1 will return an error
E. All the statements will validate the conversion
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
The ORCL CDB has a PDB, ORCL_PDB. Examine these parameters in ORCL:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2

Examine these parameters in ORCL_PDB:

pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2-1

You switch to ORCL_PDB and plan to execute these commands:

pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2-2

What will be the outcome?
A. SGA_TARGET is set to 600M. The other values remain unchanged in both ORCL and ORCL_PDB.
B. SGA_TARGET is set to 600M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL_PDB. The other values remain unchanged in
both ORCL and ORCL_PDB.
C. SGA_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE are set to 600M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL_PDB.
SGA_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE are set to (1360-600)M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL.
D. Altering the DB_CACHE_SIZE results in an error because SGA_TARGET should be altered to 600M first.
E. Altering the DB_CACHE_SIZE results in an error because it cannot be altered in a PDB. SGA_TARGET size is
changed to 600 M.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about a PDB lockdown profile? (Choose two.)
A. It is created by a local user with the SYSDBA privilege in each PDB where it needs to be applied.
B. It is created by a common user with the SYSDBA privilege in CDB$ROOT.
C. It is created by a common user with the SYSDBA privilege in each PDB where it needs to be applied.
D. It is enabled by default on creation.
E. It is enabled by using the PDB_LOCKDOWN parameter in each PDBs where it needs to be applied.
F. It is enabled in PDBs only after the CDB to which the PDBs belong is restarted.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/multitenant/a-simple-guide-to-lockdown-profiles


QUESTION 4
USER1 is an OS user with the password oracle and is only a member of the oinstall group.
In the ORCL database, the OS_AUTHEN_PREFIX value is ops$.
Examine these commands executed by the DBA:
SQL> CREATE USER ops$user1 IDENTIFIED externally;
SQL> GRANT create session TO ops$user1;
How can USER1 be given the SYSRAC privilege?
A. Make User1 a member of the OSDBA group in Linux or the ORA_%HOMENAME%_SYSDBA group in Windows
only.
B. Grant SYSRAC to user1.
C. Grant SYSRAC to ops$user1.
D. Make USER1 a member of the OSRACDBA group in Linux or the ORA_%HOMENAME%_SYSRAC group in
Windows.
E. Grant SYSDBA to ops$user1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Your CDB is in ARCHIVELOG mode and has an application container with a container PDB. A backup exists for the
CDB. When you connect to the container PDB and try to execute a query, you get an error that a SYSTEM data file is
missing in the container PDB. You want to use the RMAN RESTORE DATABASE and RECOVER DATABASE
commands to perform the recovery.
Examine these actions:
Connect to CDB$ROOT and execute SHUTDOWN ABORT and STARTUP MOUNT.
Connect to the application container and execute SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Connect to the application container and execute ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE CLOSE ABORT.
Which option correctly lists the actions that you must execute before performing the recovery?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. only 2
D. only 3
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
In your database, DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION is set to TRUE. You successfully execute this command:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q6

Which statement is true about the space allocated to the SALES_2016 table?
A. Two subpartitions are allocated to the q1_2016 partition when the first row is inserted into q1_2016.
B. A single subpartition is allocated to the q1_2016 partition when the first row is inserted into q1_2016.
C. Separate segments are allocated to the q1_2016 partition and each of its subpartitions when the first row is inserted
into q1_2016.
D. A segment is allocated to the q1_2016 partition but not its subpartitions at table creation.
E. A single segment is allocated to the q1_2016 partition and its subpartitions at table creation.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
The TESTDB container database (CDB) running in ARCHIVELOG mode contains two pluggable databases (PDBs)
PDB1 and PDB2. A connect descriptor for TESTDB is mapped to the TNS alias testdb in tnsnames.ora.
The default RMAN configuration is used.
Examine these commands:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q7

Which files are backed up?
A. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, and FLASHBACKLOGS
B. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, and ARCHIVELOGS
C. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE and SPFILE
D. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, ONLINE REDO LOG FILES, and ARCHIVELOGS
E. all root and PDB1 data files
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-rman-backup-recovery-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about Trace File Analyzer (TFA) Collector?
A. TFA collects diagnostic data only for Oracle 12c Release 2 databases or later versions.
B. If TFA is installed on any cluster node, it automatically collects diagnostic data on all other cluster nodes.
C. It can be used to collect diagnostic data for predefined events, and can be configured to automatically collect data for
other events.
D. In Oracle 12c Release 2, TFA installation can be done only while executing root.sh.
E. It is used to collect diagnostic data only for ORA-600, ORA-7445, and ORA-4031 events.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
In TESTDB, U1 has SYSDBA privileges and the password Oracle_4U.
You recreate the password file:
$ orapwd FILE=orapwtestdb FORMAT=12.2 password=Oracle_123 ENTRIES=5
Examine the command and result:
$ sqlplus u1/[email protected] as sysdba
ERROR:
ORA-01017: invalid username/password; logon denied
What can you do to fix this error?
A. Recreate the password file with the password set to Oracle_4U.
B. Change the password of U1 to Oracle_123.
C. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE parameter value to NONE.
D. Regrant SYSDBA to U1.
E. Restart the database instance.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:670117794561

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about the In-Memory (IM) column store? (Choose two.)
A. It may be used for columns in Index Organized Tables (IOTs)
B. It may be used for columns in clustered tables
C. IM area size is not controlled by Oracle Automatic Memory Management
D. IM area size can be set at the CDB and PDB levels
E. IM area size can be increased or decreased dynamically
F. It is not used for partitioned tables
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)?
A. Space used by the ADR can be limited to a user-specified value.
B. Space used by the ADR is limited based only on the retention period.
C. The retention period for the ADR is set based on the space limit specified.
D. When the ADR reaches the space limit, it deletes incident dumps and metadata before deleting old core dumps.
E. Manual purging of all types of ADR files is allowed.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
In which two situations does the INHERIT ANY PRIVILIGES privilege regulate the privileges used?
A. when a user creates a new user
B. when a user performs a GRANT or REVOKE operation
C. when a user queries a BEQUEATH CURRENT_USER view that references an invoker\\’s right procedure
D. when a user runs a procedure created with invoker\\’s right
E. when a user runs a procedure created with definer\\’s right
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/dr_ir.htm#DBSEG661

 

QUESTION 13
You create a new application container, SALES_APP, with application PDBs, SALES1_PDB, and SALES2_PDB. You
want to install the NEW_APP application in SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB by using:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q13

Where should you execute these statements?
A. All the statements should be executed in the application root.
B. All the statements should be executed in the application seed.
C. All the statements should be executed in the SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB application containers.
D. BEGIN/END INSTALL statements should be executed in the application root and the SYNC statement in
SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB.
E. BEGIN/END INSTALL statements should be executed in the CDB root and the SYNC statement in the application
root.
Correct Answer: AD

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Oracle Database 1Z0-060 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You must configure Oracle Data Redaction for the EMP table to satisfy the following requirements:
RANDOM redaction on the SAL and COMM columns PARTIAL redaction on the HIREDATE column FULL redaction on
the MGR column
What would you define to implement this?
A. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy for each data type defined for the table that must be redacted
B. several redaction policies, with each redaction policy specifying the redaction for table columns of that redaction type
C. one redaction policy on the table, which specifies the redaction types for all table columns that must be redacted
D. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy for each table column that must be redacted
Correct Answer: C
You can redact columns of different data types, using different redaction types, for one table or view.

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?
A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.
Correct Answer: AC
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large
databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don\\’t have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.
Note:
*
The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual
disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU).
To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
*
The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The
initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds.
This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to
Oracle Release 11 or higher.

 

QUESTION 3
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3. Which two
RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?
A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2
Correct Answer: AC
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
*
(A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For
example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
*
(C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a
non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command. Reference: Oracle
Database Backup and Recovery User\\’s Guide 12c, About Backup and Recovery of CDBs

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to migrate your database from a file system to Automatic Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. RMAN CONVERT command
B. Data Pump Export and Import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE … command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
Correct Answer: AD
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles. Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage There is often a need to move the files from the file
system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some
means and then the file may need to be moved to the other file
system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
*
To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that database into
ASM. This migration is performed using Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using RMAN for your primary
backup and recovery strategy.
*
Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE
FORMAT \\’+DISK\\’ TAG \\’ORA_ASM_MIGRATION\\’;

 

QUESTION 5
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened
in read only mode?
A. You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
Correct Answer: CDEF
*
The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter.
THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model.
THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
*
OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
*
THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating system
authentication is not supported. Attempts to connect to the database using operating system authentication (for
example,
CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization parameter is set to TRUE receive an
ORA-01031″insufficient privileges” error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if there is an
exisitng connection to a different PDB. The pool can use the existing connection, and through SET CONTAINER, can
connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using:
ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=
This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is
enabled? (Choose two.)
A. reduced CPU utilization
B. reduced physical I/O
C. improved Serial Execution performance
D. reduced logical I/O
E. reduced virtual memory utilization
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the
following command:
lsnrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be that no
new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

 

QUESTION 8
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.
A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions
Correct Answer: AE
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default,
this policy is not enabled.

 

QUESTION 9
Examine these two statements:pass4itsure 1z0-060 exam question q9

Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)
A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a smallfile tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required
for bigfile files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT
tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT
tablespace.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about the use of the query result cache? (Choose three.)
A. Results obtained from a query rewrite to a materialized view may be stored in the query result cache.
B. Stale results may still be obtained from the query result cache, if the query session\\’s query_rewrite_integrity
parameter is set to stale_tolerated.
C. Results obtained from a join between a table and a view may be stored in the query result cache.
D. Results from distributed queries are never stored in the query result cache.
E. Results may not be obtained from the query result cache, when the query_rewrite_enabled parameter is set to false.
F. Results from remote queries may sometimes be stored in the query result cache.
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 11
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:pass4itsure 1z0-060 exam question q11

You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows. What
could be a reason for this recommendation?
A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.
Correct Answer: D
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS)? (Choose two.)
A. Direct NFS can use only the oranfstab configuration file located in $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/.
B. It utilizes the operating system file system cache.
C. Oracle Database requires mount points to be mounted by the kernel NFS system even when served through the
Direct NFS client.
D. The Oracle database files available on the NFS server that are served by the Direct NFS Client cannot be accessed
through the operating system kernel NFS.
E. Direct NFS performs load balancing across all specified paths. If a specified path fails, Direct NFS reissues I/O
commands over any remaining paths.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 13
You executed this command to create a password file: $ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N Which two
statements are true about the password file?
A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the SYSDBA role.
Correct Answer: AD
*
You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
*
Adding Users to a Password File When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user\\’s name and
privilege information are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if
the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing),
Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user\\’s name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If you
revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the password file.
*
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
*
IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the password that
the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.

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Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Maintain a Configuration Manager Management Infrastructure (35-40%)
  • Manage Inventory by Using Configuration Manager (10-15%)
  • Manage Applications by Using Configuration Manager (15-20%)
  • Deploy and Maintain Operating Systems by using Configuration Manager (20-25%)
  • Extend the Management Scope of Configuration Manager (10-15%)

Microsoft MCSE 70-703 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to configure the Configuration Manager clients to meet the following requirements:
Manage Microsoft Office 365 updates.
Configure the times at which updates can be applied.
Allow unsigned Windows PowerShell scripts to be executed.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate settings to the correct requirements.
Each setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a VPN over
DSL connection.
The branch office contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.1. All the computers are on the same subnet.
You plan to upgrade the operating system on the computers by using Configuration Manager. During the upgrade
process, you will maintain the user state and the files.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of WAN traffic during the operating system deployments.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a cloud management gateway
B. a distribution point
C. a service connection point
D. a cloud-based distribution point
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/deploy-and-manage-content#bkmk_distribute

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: From each client, you run CMEnroll.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains client computers that are managed by using
System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). The computers are configured as shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q4

You need to ensure that you can run a virtual application on all the computers. What should you do?
A. Deploy a provisioning package that upgrades all the computers that run Windows 10 Pro to Windows 10 Enterprise.
B. Deploy a certificate profile.
C. Enable hardware virtualization support for all the computers.
D. From Application Management, create Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) virtual environment.
E. Deploy the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client to all the computers.
F. From a Group Policy object (GPO), enable Microsoft User Experience Virtualization (UE-V)
G. Deploy a Windows 10 Edition Upgrade policy
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/apps/get-started/deploying-app-v-virtual-applications

QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You plan to configure content management by creating distribution points and distribution point groups.
Which type of object can you associate to the distribution points and the distribution point groups? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You deploy the client by using a Group Policy software installation.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You manually install the client on the computers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You add the cloud management gateway connector point to the deployment.
Which site system role can be configured to receive the traffic from the cloud management gateway?
A. Service connection point
B. Software update point
C. Asset Intelligence synchronization point
D. Endpoint Protection point
E. Distribution point
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.systemcenterdudes.com/how-to-setup-an-sccm-cloud-management-gateway/

QUESTION 9
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus is deployed to all client computers.
You need to ensure that all updates for Office 365 are deployed from Configuration Manager by using the least amount
of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create an automatic deployment rule (ADR)
B. Add a product to the software update point
C. Create a configuration baseline
D. Create an application
E. Update the Client Settings
F. Create a task sequence
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/automatically-deploy-software-updates

QUESTION 10
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
The main office has a software update point. Currently, all client computers receive Microsoft updates from the main
office.
You need to ensure that the computers in the branch office receive updates from a local server. The solution must meet
the following requirements:
Ensure that the updates are managed by using Configuration Manager.
Ensure that the computers in the branch office scan for updates against a local catalog.
What should you deploy to the branch office?
A. a software update point, a service connection point, and an Application Catalog website point
B. a software update point, a distribution point, and a reporting services point
C. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), a service connection point, and a management point
D. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), a software update point, and a distribution point
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/get-started/manage-settings-for-software-updates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/download-software-updates

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains a WMI filter for the five computers. To the GPO, you add
a startup script that runs ccmsetup.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Ccmsetup.exe is used to deploy the Configuration Manager client but WMI filtering is based on device types. We should
use security filtering instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/grouppolicy/2009/07/30/security-filtering-wmi-filtering-and-item-level-targeting-in-group-policy-preferences/

QUESTION 12
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You run WINVER on client computer named Computer1 as shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q12

You need to create a compliance policy that has a condition specifying a minimum version of the operating system. The
condition must use the same operating system version as Computer1. Which version should you specify in the
condition?
A. 10.0.16299.15
B. 10.0.1709
C. 10.1709
D. 10.1709.16299.15
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/compliance-policy-create-windows

QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure reporting in Configuration Manager and verify that users can view reports.
You need to ensure that the users can subscribe to the reports and that the reports are delivered by using email.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the email address of the users.
B. In Configuration Manager, configure the Report Options.
C. In Reporting Services Configuration Manager, configure the E-mail Settings.
D. In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, configure Database Mail.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/SCCMdocs/blob/master/sccm/core/servers/manage/operations-and-maintenance-for-reporting.md https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/sql/sql-server-2008/ms159155(v=sql.100)

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How do I pass the Microsoft MCSE 70-703 exam? You need to be prepared for it! You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the 70-703 exam. “Candidates for this exam are Enterprise Desktop Administrators who deploy, manage and maintain PCs, devices,
and applications across medium, large, and enterprise organizations.
Candidates for this exam should have at least one or two years of experience managing and deploying PCs, devices, and applications by using System Center Configuration Manager and Microsoft Intune. Candidates should have a strong understanding of networking, Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Windows operating systems, and mobile device platforms.
Candidates should also understand public key infrastructure (PKI) security, Windows PowerShell, and Windows Server roles and services”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Which option does UEFI secure boot provide?
A. checksum verification of the EFI shell
B. certificate verification of the EFI shell
C. checksum verification of the OS
D. certificate verification of the OS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which FEX connection mode do you use to pin the server-facing FEX ports to the connected uplink ports when the FEX
is discovered?
A. port channel
B. soft pinning
C. hard pinning
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile
management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco
Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1-2-1/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Server
s_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guide_1_ 2_1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guide_1_ 2_ 1_chapter9.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/blade-servers/install/B200.html

 

QUESTION 7
You must implement a Dynamic FCoE topology that uses ECMP. Which ancillary technology do you use?
A. OTV
B. VXLAN
C. FabricPath
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which two are true concerning authorization within a Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. A role defines a collection of privileges that determines which actions a user can take in Cisco Unified Computing
System Manager.
B. Authorization consists of three components (roles, password policy, and locales) that are based on which features
and resources the user will not have access to.
C. Customized roles can be configured on and downloaded from remote AAA servers.
D. The logical resources, pools and policies, are grouped into roles.
E. If the service profile cannot find available resources, it will search in the parent organization for pools and resources.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration?

pass4itsure 300-175 exam question q10

A. Creates an interface for FcoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FcoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FcoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and Commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transactions.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of FCoE topology is displayed?pass4itsure 300-175 exam question q11

A. direct-attach
B. remote-attach
C. vPC
D. FCoE with Cisco 2232 Fabric Extenders
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-560403.html

 

QUESTION 12
In an environment where multiple LDAP servers are used for user authentication, which Cisco UCS Manager feature
must be configured?
A. LDAP Locale
B. Organization
C. LDAP Provider Group
D. Authentication Domain
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/sample_configurations/UCSM_1_4_LDAP_with_AD/b
_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD/b_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD_chapter_010.html https://www.cisco
.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Admin-
Management/3-1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/
b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_0100.html#task_4331F325E9F249C5BEBD25E0C465309C
For implementations involving multiple LDAP databases, configure an LDAP provider group.

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true regarding backup operations in Cisco UCS Manager?
A. A user can perform incremental backups of a system configuration
B. Passwords and other sensitive information are encrypted in full state backups
C. Scheduled backups are not available
D. Each backup destination can have multiple backup operations
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following early examples of cloud computing was used for software engineering purposes in the form of

web-based applications and required interoperability between different systems? 

A. Distributed Computing 

B. Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) 

C. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) 

D. Desktop Virtualization 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline? 

A. Increased costs 

B. Larger knowledge base 

C. Increased free hard drive space 

D. Improved service level 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the BEST environment in which to deploy into cloud? 

A. Production 

B. Development 

C. Quality Assurance 

D. Staging 

Correct Answer: D 

“Staging is where you deploy code before you deploy to production.” 

Reference: https://increment.com/development/center-stage-best-practices-for-staging-environments/ 

 

QUESTION 4

Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that

information by any party. 

A. companies, others 

B. companies, themselves 

C. individuals, others 

D. individuals, themselves 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

A company uses an IaaS cloud deployment model with a third-party vendor. Which of the following does the company

fully control? (Choose two.) 

A. Operating systems 

B. Physical servers 

C. Service availability 

D. Physical security 

E. Storage 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 6

Elastic computing is important to businesses as it relates to which of the following cloud characteristics? 

A. Scalability 

B. Security 

C. Integrity 

D. Distribution 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

In which of the following scenarios is cloud computing the LEAST advantages? 

A. An organization needs access to applications for a short period of time 

B. An organization needs access to physically secure highly sensitive data 

C. An organization needs to synchronize calendar functions on a rightly basis 

D. An organization deals with non-mission-critical applications 

Correct Answer: B 

Reference: https://www.levelcloud.net/why-levelcloud/cloud-education-center/advantages-and-disadvantages-of-cloud-computing/ 

 

QUESTION 8

A company recently implemented a cloud infrastructure. Now their customers are receiving unsolicited advertisements

form third-party vendors. Which of the following did the company neglect to consider before implementing the cloud? 

A. Privacy risks 

B. Local compliance policies 

C. Cost of the implementation 

D. Legal standards 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

A company decides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT

administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The

company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this

company implemented? 

A. Outsourcing 

B. Virtualization 

C. PaaS 

D. IaaS 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility? 

A. Return on investment 

B. Integrity 

C. Elasticity 

D. Vendor lock-in 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy? 

A. Open up internal databases with Web service access. 

B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers 

C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines. 

D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

A company wants to implement an internal virtualized infrastructure to provide its employees with on demand storage

which will be accessible through a web interface over the public Internet. This is an example of which of the following? 

A. Public cloud 

B. Community cloud 

C. Hybrid cloud 

D. Private cloud 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following factors of service must be managed effectively by a SaaS provider in a cloud computing

environment? 

A. Application access levels 

B. Client background checks 

C. Availability 

D. User acceptance 

Correct Answer: C

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