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EMC Cloud Infrastructure DEA-2TT3 Practice Exam 1-13

QUESTION 1
A service is offered to consumers from 9 A.M. to 5 P.M., Monday through Friday. The service experiences downtime
from 3 P.M. to 5 P.M. on Wednesday of a given week.
What is the service availability for that week?
A. 95.00%
B. 95.88%
C. 96.42%
D. 98.33%
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which management process ensures business continuity by eliminating single points of failure in a data center?
A. Availability management
B. Security management
C. Capacity management
D. Performance management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3

examdemoprogram dea-2tt3 exam questions-q3

Which cloud service model is represented in the exhibit?
A. Software as a Service
B. Infrastructure as a Service
C. Platform as a Service
D. Database as a Service
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which compliance standard provides policies and procedures to optimize the security of credit card transactions?
A. HIPAA
B. ENISA
C. CSA CCM
D. PCI DSS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5

examdemoprogram dea-2tt3 exam questions-q5

Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of hypervisor is installed in this environment?
A. Hosted Hypervisor-Type 1
B. Bare Metal Hypervisor-Type 1
C. Hosted Hypervisor-Type 2
D. Bare Metal Hypervisor-Type 2
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
What is the function of service portfolio management?
A. Ensure compliance with industry standards
B. Enable capacity and availability management
C. Perform market research and collect information about competitors
D. Collect information about cloud services and their constituent elements
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
What is a characteristic of thin LUNs?
A. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is automatically reclaimed to the pool.
B. When a thin LUN is created, physical storage is fully allocated for it
C. Once a thin LUN is created it cannot be destroyed until all data is deleted from it
D. When a thin LUN is destroyed, its allocated capacity is reserved until an administrator reclaims it
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 8
An organization has deployed cloud infrastructure. They frequently experience power outages that result in their
service offerings being unavailable from time to time.
What term refers to this condition?
A. Transient unavailability
B. In-transient unavailability
C. Permanent unavailability
D. Intermittent unavailability
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
An organization requires double the processing capacity for a specific duration to handle an increased workload. For the
remaining period, the organization might want to release the idle resources to save costs. The workload variations are maybe
seasonal or transient.
Which cloud characteristics enables the consumer to handle such variations in workloads and IT resource
requirements?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Resource pooling
C. Measured service
D. On-demand self-service
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
What is a common characteristic of organizations that have adopted modern applications to unlock digital business
advantage?
A. They focus on compelling user experiences and responsive designs
B. They leverage only its internal IT infrastructure to develop and deploy applications
C. They leverage only the public cloud to develop and deploy applications
D. They focus on meeting internal users\\’ demands rather than customers\\’ expectations
Correct Answer: A

 


QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
What is the correct sequence of steps involved in synchronous remote replication?

examdemoprogram dea-2tt3 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
In which technique does an application maintain limited functionality, even when some of the modules or supporting
services of that application become unavailable?
A. Retry logic
B. Persistent state model
C. Graceful degradation
D. Checkpointing
Correct Answer: C

 


QUESTION 13
A cloud service provider uses a resource pooling approach to improve the utilization of resources by sharing them with
multiple customers. What mechanism should the cloud provider deploy to prevent one consumer from accessing the
virtual machines of another consumer?
A. Hypervisor-based resource pooling
B. Secure multitenancy through isolation
C. Pooling of resources through multitenancy
D. Virtual machine-based resource pooling
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: EMC
Certifications: Cloud Infrastructure
Exam Code: DEA-2TT3
Exam Name: Dell EMC Cloud Infrastructure and Services v3 (DEA-2TT3)
Updated: Oct 21, 2020
Q&As: 66

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LPI Certification 010-160 Exam Practice Question

QUESTION 1
A directory contains the following files:

examdemoprogram 010-160 exam questions-q1

A. *.txt
B. a b
C. c.cav
D. a.txt
E. a. txt
F. txt
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 2
Which of the following devices represents a hard disk partition?
A. /dev/ttyS0
B. /dev/sata0
C. /dev/part0
D. /dev/sda2
E. /dev/sda/p2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following Linux Distributions is derived from Red Hat Enterprise Linux?
A. Raspbian
B. openSUSE
C. Debian
D. Ubuntu
E. CentOS
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 4
Which of the following directories must be mounted with read and write access if it resides on its own dedicated file
system?
A. /opt
B. /lib
C. /etc
D. /var
E. /usr
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 5
Which statements about the directory /etc/skel are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The personal user settings of root are stored in this directory.
B. The files from the directory are copied to the home directory of the new user when starting the system.
C. The files from the directory are copied to the home directory of a new user when the account is created.
D. The directory contains a default set of configuration files used by the useradd command.
E. The directory contains the global settings for the Linux system.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
A new server needs to be installed to host services for a period of several years. Throughout this time, the server should
receive important security updates from its Linux distribution.
Which of the following Linux distributions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Ubuntu Linux LTS
B. Fedora Linux
C. Debian GNU/Linux Unstable
D. Ubuntu Linux non-LTS
E. Red Hat Enterprise Linux
Correct Answer: AE


QUESTION 7
What is true about the owner of a file?
A. Each file is owned by exactly one user and one group.
B. The owner of a file always has full permissions when accessing the file.
C. The user owning a file must be a member of the file\\’s group.
D. When a user is deleted, all files owned by the user disappear.
E. The owner of a file cannot be changed once it is assigned to an owner.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What information can be displayed by top?
A. Existing files, ordered by their size.
B. Running processes, ordered by CPU or RAM consumption.
C. User accounts, ordered by the number of logins.
D. User groups, ordered by the number of members.
E. User accounts, ordered by the number of files.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following commands sorts the output of the command export-logs?
A. export-logs
B. export-logs > sort
C. export-logs and sort
D. export-logs | sort
E. export-logs sort
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
Which one of the following statements concerning Linux passwords is true?
A. All passwords can be decrypted using the system administrator\\’s master password.
B. Passwords may never start with a non-letter.
C. Users cannot change their password once it has been set.
D. Passwords are only stored in hashed form.
E. Passwords may be at most six characters long.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which command adds the new user tux and creates the user\\’s home directory with default configuration files?
A. defaultuser tux
B. useradd -m tux
C. usercreate tux
D. useradd -o default tux
E. passwd -a tux
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
FILL BLANK What command displays manual pages? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: man

QUESTION 13
A. It is the default shell of the root account.
B. It can only be used by the user root.
C. It runs a shell or command as another user.
D. It changes the name of the main administrator account.
E. It locks the root account in specific time frames.
Correct Answer: C

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Prepare With New Microsoft 70-767 Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. An Execute SQL task in the package checks
product stock levels and sets a package variable named InStock to TRUE or FALSE depending on the stock level
found.
After the successful execution of the Execute SQL task, one of two data flow tasks must run, depending on the value of
the InStock variable.
You need to set the precedence constraints.
Which value for the evaluation operation should you use? (To answer, select the appropriate option for the evaluation
operation in the answer area.)
Hot Area:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves order-related data to a
staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated and then all the recent orders from the online
store
database are inserted into the staging
table.
Your package must meet the following requirements:
If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error.
If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire refresh operation must be rolled back.
For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each execution of the Data Flow task.
The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required.
You need to design the package to meet the requirements.
How should you design the control flow for the package? (To answer, drag the appropriate setting from the list of
settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
Select and Place:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q2

Correct Answer:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q2-2

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
You are importing data from databases at retail stores into a central data warehouse. All stores use the same database
schema.
The query being executed against the retail stores is shown below:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q3

The data source property named IsSorted is set to True. The output of the transform must be sorted.
You need to add a component to the data flow.
Which SSIS Toolbox item should you use?
A. CDC Control task
B. CDC Splitter
C. Union All
D. XML task
E. Fuzzy Grouping
F. Merge
G. Merge Join
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports SQL Azure data into a data warehouse
every night.
The SQL Azure data contains many misspellings and variations of abbreviations. To import the data, a developer used
the Fuzzy Lookup transformation to choose the closest- matching string from a reference table of allowed values. The
number of rows in the reference table is very large.
If no acceptable match is found, the Fuzzy Lookup transformation passes a null value.
The current setting for the Fuzzy Lookup similarity threshold is 0.50.
Many values are incorrectly matched.
You need to ensure that more accurate matches are made by the Fuzzy Lookup transformation without degrading
performance.
What should you do?
A. Decrease the maximum number of matches per lookup.
B. Change the similarity threshold to 0.55.
C. Change the Exhaustive property to True.
D. Increase the maximum number of matches per lookup.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms137786.aspx

QUESTION 5
You are designing the data warehouse to import data from three different environments. The sources for the data
warehouse will be loaded every hour.
Scenario A includes tables in a Microsoft Azure SQL Database:
1.
Millions of updates and inserts occur per hour
2.
A periodic query of the current state of rows that have changed is needed.
3.
The change detection method needs to be able to ignore changes to some columns in a table.
4.
The source database is a member of an AlwaysOn Availability group.
Scenario B includes tables with status update changes:
1.
Tracking the duration between workflow statuses.
2.
All transactions must be captured, including before/after values for UPDATE statements.
3.
To minimize impact to performance, the change strategy adopted should be asynchronous.
Scenario C includes an external source database:
1.
Updates and inserts occur regularly.
2.
No changes to the database should require code changes to any reports or applications.
3.
Columns are added and dropped to tables in the database periodically. These schema changes should not require any
interruption or reconfiguration of the change detection method chose.
4.
Data is frequently queried as the entire row appeared at a past point in time.
All tables have primary keys.
You need to load each data source. You must minimize complexity, disk storage, and disruption to the data sources and
the existing data warehouse.
Which change detection method should you use for each scenario? To answer, drag the appropriate loading methods to
the correct scenarios. Each source may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q5

Box A: System-Versioned Temporal Table
System-versioned temporal tables are designed to allow users to transparently keep the full history of changes for later
analysis, separately from the current data, with the minimal impact on the main OLTP workload.
Box B: Change Tracking
Box C: Change Data Capture
Change data capture supports tracking of historical data, while that is not supported by change tracking.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/track-changes/track-data-changes-sql-server
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/tables/temporal-table-usage-scenarios

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) projects. The project consists of several
packages that load data warehouse tables.
You need to extend the control flow design for each package to use the following control flow while minimizing
development efforts and maintenance:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q6

 Solution: You add the control flow to a control flow package part. You add an instance of the control flow package part
to each data warehouse load package. Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
A package consists of a control flow and, optionally, one or more data flows. You create the control flow in a package by
using the Control Flow tab in SSIS Designer. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integrationservices/control-flow/control-flow

QUESTION 7
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a Microsoft SQL server named dw1for a new data warehouse. The server contains eight drives and
eight processor cores. Each drive uses a separate physical disk.
You need to configure storage for the tempdb database. The solution must minimize the amount of time it takes to
process daily ETLjobs.
Solution: You configure eight files for the tempdb database. You place the files on a drive that will NOT store the user
database files.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
You are administering SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) permissions on a production server that runs SQL Server
2016.
Package developers in your company must have permission to perform the following tasks only on their own projects:
View projects and packages, View Environments, Validate packages, Execute packages.
You need to grant rights to the developers without assigning unnecessary privileges.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of a solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add developer logins to the db_ssisltduser role in the msdb database.
B. Add developer logins to the db_ssisoperator role in the msdb database.
C. Grant Execute permission in the projects for the developer logins.
D. Grant Read permission in the SSIS catalog folder, the projects, and the Environments.
E. Add developer logins to the ssis_admin role in the SSISDB database.
F. Grant Modify permission in the projects for the developer logins.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation: B: db_ssisoperator
*
Read actions
Enumerate all packages.
View all packages.
Execute all packages.
Export all packages.
Execute all packages in SQL Server Agent.
*
Write actions
None
D: Need read permissions on the Environments in order to be able to view them.
Incorrect:
Not A: db_ssisltduser
*
Read actions
Enumerate own packages.
Enumerate all packages.
View own packages.
Execute own packages.
Export own packages.
*
Write Actions
Import packages.
Delete own packages.
Change own package roles.
Not E: db_ssisadmin
Too many permissions (such as delete all packages).

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft SQL Server Data Warehouse instance that uses SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS). The
instance has a cube containing data from an on-premises
SQL Server instance. A measure named Measure1 is configured to calculate the average of a column.
You plan to change Measure1 to a full additive measure and create a new measure named Measure2 that evaluates
data based on the first populated row.
You need to configure the measures.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q9-2

Box 1:
The default setting is SUM (fully additive).
Box 2:
FirstNonEmpty: The member value is evaluated as the value of its first child along the time dimension that contains
data.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/analysis-services/multidimensionalmodels/define-semiadditivebehavior

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is
repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in the series.
Start of repeated scenario
Contoso. Ltd. has a Microsoft SQL Server environment that includes SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS), a data
warehouse, and SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) Tabular and multidimensional models.
The data warehouse stores data related to your company sales, financial transactions and financial budgets. All data for
the data warenouse originates from the company\\’s business financial system.
The data warehouse includes the following tables:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q10

The company plans to use Microsoft Azure to store older records from the data warehouse. You must modify the
database to enable the Stretch Database capability.
Users report that they are becoming confused about which city table to use for various queries. You plan to create a
new schema named Dimension and change the name of the dbo.du_city table to Diamension.city. Data loss is not
permissible, and you must not leave traces of the old table in the data warehouse.
Pal to create a measure that calculates the profit margin based on the existing measures.
You must implement a partitioning scheme few the fact. Transaction table to move older data to less expensive storage.
Each partition will store data for a single calendar year, as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.) You must
align
the partitions.

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q10-2

You must improve performance for queries against the fact.Transaction table. You must implement appropriate indexes
and enable the Stretch Database capability.
End of repeated scenario
You need to resolve the problems reported about the dia__city table.
How should you complete the Transact-SQL statement? To answer, drag the appropriate Transact-SQL segments to
the correct locations. Each Transact-SQL segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to
drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Hot Area:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q10-3

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a data warehouse that stores information about products, sales, and orders for a manufacturing company.
The instance contains a database that has two tables named SalesOrderHeader and SalesOrderDetail.
SalesOrderHeader
has 500,000 rows and SalesOrderDetail has 3,000,000 rows.
Users report performance degradation when they run the following stored procedure:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q11

You need to optimize performance.
Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q11-2

Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You can specify the sample size as a percent. A 5% statistics sample size would be helpful.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-tables-statistics

QUESTION 12
You are designing a fact table in a SQL Server database.
The fact table must meet the following requirements:
Correct Answer: C

 QUESTION 13
You are developing a Microsoft SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to incrementally load new and
changed records from a data source.
The SSIS package must load new records into Table1 and updated records into Table1_Updates. After loading records,
the package must call a Transact-SQL statement to process updated rows according to existing business logic.
You need to complete the design of the SSIS package.
Which tasks should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate SSIS objects to the correct targets. Each SSIS object
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q13

Correct Answer:

examdemoprogram 70-767 exam questions-q13-2

Step 1: CDC Control Task Get Processing Range
Step 2: Mark Processed Range
Step 3: Data Flow
The Data Flow task encapsulates the data flow engine that moves data between sources and destinations, and lets the
user transform, clean, and modify data as it is moved. Addition of a Data Flow task to a package control flow makes it
possible for the package to extract, transform, and load data.
Step 4: CDC Source
The CDC source reads a range of change data from SQL Server 2017 change tables and delivers the changes
downstream to other SSIS component.
Step 5: CDC Splitter
The CDC splitter splits a single flow of change rows from a CDC source data flow into different data flows for Insert,
Update and Delete operations.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/cdc-control-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/control-flow/data-flow-task
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/integration-services/data-flow/cdc-splitter?view=sql-server-2017

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Free Microsoft 70-496 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Question: 1
DRAG DROP
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server with one project collection and multiple build machines. A development team installs and configures a build service on a new build machine. You need to be able to validate that the installation and configuration meets your organization’s requirements and follows its best practices. At which service would you perform the following tasks? (To answer, drag the appropriate build component to the correct standards- checking task in the answer area. Each build component may be used once, more than once, or not at all.)

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Question: 2
You are planning to install a new Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server. You need to ensure that the minimum supported version of Microsoft SQL Server is installed. Which version should you install?
A. SQL Server 2005
B. SQL Server 2008 32-bit
C. SQL Server 2008 64-bit
D. SQL Server 2008 R2
E. SQL Server 2012
070-496 exam Answer: D
Question: 3
To support your development team’s upgrade from Visual Studio 2010 to Visual Studio 2012, you also upgrade from Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2010 to TFS 2012. You need to provide a TFS 2012 test environment that:
• Includes data and source code from your existing TFS 2010 environment and

• Allows your developers to test the new TFS 2012 and Visual Studio 2012 features while keeping the current TFS 2010 environment intact. What should you do?
A. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same server as TFS 2010. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
B. Install TFS 2012 on a new server. Point TFS 2012 to the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services.
C. Clone the existing TFS 2010 environment (including the existing database, SharePoint, and SQL Reporting Services) on new servers and update the internal IDs. Upgrade the cloned environment to TFS 2012.
D. Copy the existing TFS 2010 database, SharePoint, and SQL Server Reporting services to a new set of servers. Install TFS 2012 side-by-side on the same hardware as TFS 2010, and point TFS 2012 to the new servers.
Answer: C
Question: 4
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server and a virtual test environment that uses Lab Management 2012 along with System Center Virtual Machine Manager (SCVMM) 2010. You want to install a test virtual machine that is hosted within a lab environment. You need to ensure that the test virtual machine can support all the features of Lab Management 2012. Which component should you install on the test virtual machine?
A. Agents for Visual Studio 2012
B. Visual Studio Build Agent 2012
C. Visual Studio Test Agent 2012
D. Visual Studio Lab Agent 2012
70-496 dumps Answer: A
Question: 5
Your network environment includes a Microsoft Visual Studio Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 server named TFS1. SharePoint and Reporting Services components are also installed and configured for TFS on the same server. You need to be able to access the SharePoint Project Portal from the TFS server by using the following URL: http://tfs.fabrikam.com. What should you do?
A. From the TFS Administration Console, edit the SharePoint Web Application URL.
B. From Visual Studio Team Explorer, edit the portal settings.
C. Run the TFSC0nfIg.exe SharePointportal command.
D. From the SharePoint Central Administration website, configure the Alternate Access Mappings.
Answer: D
Question: 6
Your network environment includes a Team Foundation Server (TFS) 2012 named TFS1 that contains two project collections named PC1 and PC2. A build server named Bi is configured with a build controller named C1 and an agent named A1 that runs build definitions created in Pd. A development team wants to create a gated check-in build definition on PC2. You need to perform a supported infrastructure enhancement to run PC2 build definitions. What should you do?
A.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, migrate controller C1 and install a new controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
B.
• Add a new build server (B2).
• On the B2 build server, install a build controller (C2) that connects to the PC2 project collection.
• On the B2 build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
C.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, update the Al agent to use controllers C1 and C2.
D.
• On the Bi build server, configure the C1 controller to connect to project collections PC1 and PC2.
• On the Bi build server, configure a second build agent (A2) that uses the C2 controller.
070-496 pdf Answer: B
Question: 7
Your network environment is configured according to the following table:
070-496 dumps

Your TFS environment is configured with the following URLs:
• TFS: http://tfssrv:8080/tfs
• Reporting: http://tfssrv/reports
• SharePoint: http://tfssrv/sites
You need to configure only the TFS URL to be the following fully qualified domain name (FQDN): http://tfs.contoso.com. You log on to the application-tier server. What should you do next?

A. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the host name with the friendly name.
B. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Notification URL text box.
C. In the IIS Manager, select TFS Website and configure the server URL with the friendly name.
D. In the TFS Administration Console, go to the Change URIs dialog box and enter the friendly URL in the Server URL text box.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-413
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Updated: Aug 03, 2017
Q&As: 206

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070-413

Free Microsoft 70-413 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

Testlet 1
Topic 3, Litware, Inc
Overview
Litware, Inc., is a manufacturing company. The company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle. The branch offices are
located in Los Angeles and Boston.
Existing Environment
070-413 exam Active Directory
The network contains an Active Directory forest named litwareinc.com. The forest contains a child domain for each office. The child domains are named
boston.litwareinc.com and la.litwareinc.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
In each domain, all of the client computer accounts reside in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers and all of the user accounts reside in an OU named
AllUsers.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers.
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Network Infrastructure
The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
Three virtual file servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Ten physical application servers that run Windows Server 2012
One virtual IP Address Management (IPAM) server that runs Windows Server 2012
One virtual Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
Each branch office has following servers:
One virtual file server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
Two physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
All of the offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. The offices connect to each other by using T1 leased lines.
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
70-413 dumps Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only.
Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only.
Migrate to IPv6 addressing on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office. Some application servers in the Los Angeles office will have only IPv6 addresses.
Technical Requirements
The company identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com.
Migrate the DHCP servers from the physical servers to a virtual server that runs Windows Server 2012.
Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.
VPN Requirements
You plan to implement a third-party VPN server in each office. The VPN servers will be configured as RADIUS clients. A server that runs Windows Server 2012
will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Visualization Requirements
The company identifies the following visualization requirements:
Virtualize the application servers.
Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource usage of the Hyper-V hosts.
070-413 pdf Server Deployment Requirements
The company identifies the following requirements for the deployment of new servers on the network:
Deploy the new servers over the network.
Ensure that all of the server deployments are done by using multicast.
Security Requirements
A new branch office will open in Chicago. The new branch office will have a single read-only domain controller (RODC). Confidential attributes must not be
replicated to the Chicago office.
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?
A. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B. The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)

C. The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based
installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.
Reference: What’s New in Windows Deployment Services in Windows Server
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A new site
B. A new site link bridge
C. A new site link
D. A new subnet
070-413 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The forest contains a child domain for each office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
* Sites overview
Sites in AD DS represent the physical structure, or topology, of your network. AD DS uses network topology information, which is stored in the directory as site
subnet, and site link objects, to build the most efficient replication topology. The replication topology itself consists of the set of connection objects that enable
inbound replication from a source domain controller to the destination domain controller that stores the connection object. The Knowledge Consistency Checke
(KCC) creates these connection objects automatically on each domain controller.
Reference: Understanding Sites, Subnets, and Site Links http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754697.aspx
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory environment to support the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
C. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From case study:
* Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a change to the Active Directory environment to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Raise the functional level of the domain and the forest.
B. Implement Administrator Role Separation.
C. Upgrade the domain controllers that have the PDC emulator master role to Windows Server 2012.
D. Upgrade the domain controller that has the domain naming master role to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: A
70-413 dumps Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains. Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B. Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_ group on the IPAM server.
C. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet and modify the membership of the WinRMRemoteWMRJsers_ group on the IPAM server.
D. Run the Set-IpamConfigurationcmdlet on the IPAM server. Run the Invoke- IpamGpoProvisioningcmdlet in all three domains.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario: Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements.
Which schema attribute properties should you recommend modifying?
A. isIndexed
B. searchFlags
C. isCriticalSystemObject
D. schemaFlagsEx
070-413 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario: ). Confidential attributes must not be replicated to the Chicago office.
* Applies To: Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2012 This topic includes procedures for adding an attribute to the filtered attribute set (FAS) for a readonly
domain controller (RODC) and marking the attribute as confidential data. You can perform these procedures to exclude specific data from replicating to RODCs in
the forest. Because the data is not replicated to any RODCs, you can be assured that the data will not be revealed to an attacker who manages to successfully
compromise an RODC. In most cases, adding an attribute to the RODC FAS is completed by the developer of the application that added the attribute to the
schema.
· Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute · Verify that an attribute is added to the RODC FAS
– Determine and then modify the current searchFlags value of an attribute To add an attribute to an RODC FAS, you must first determine the current searchFlags
value of the attribute that you want to add, and then set the following values for searchflags:
· To add the attribute to the RODC FAS, set the 10th bit to 0x200. · To mark the attribute as confidential, set the 7th bit to 0x080.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a migration strategy for the DHCP servers. The strategy must meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you recommend running on the physical DHCP servers?
A. Import-SmigServerSetting
B. Export-SmigServerSetting
C. Receive-SmigServerData
D. Send-SmigServerData
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Main office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 / each branch office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 /
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
* Example:
Command Prompt: C:\PS>
Export-SmigServerSetting -Feature “DHCP” -User All -Group -Path “c:\temp\store” -Verbose
This sample command exports the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Server and all other Windows features that are required by DHCP Server.
QUESTION 8
You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain.
Which tools should you use?
A. Gpfixup and Gpupdate
B. Rendom and Gpfixup
C. Gpupdate and Dcgpofix
D. Adprep and Rendom
070-413 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.litwareinc.com
* Rendom.exe is a command-line tool that is used to rename Active Directory domains.
Reference: Rendom
QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a server virtualization strategy that meets the technical requirements and the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Windows Server Backup
B. The Microsoft Virtual Machine Converter
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
D. Disk2vhd
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:

Virtualize the application servers.
Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource us The main office has the following servers:
Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012age of the Hyper-V hosts.
*
System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade Expanded hypervisor support, virtual application support and a myriad of other
upgrades are coming in the new VMM 2012.
There’s no doubt that Microsoft is making System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) a key component of the System Center suite. The scope of the product
is being expanded so much that it could be renamed “System Center Virtual Datacenter Manager.” The new version of VMM is currently in beta and is scheduled
for release in the second half of 2011. VMM can now do bare-metal installations on fresh hardware, create Hyper-V clusters instead of just managing them, and
communicate directly with your SAN arrays to provision storage for your virtual machines (VMs). The list of supported hypervisors has also arown–it includes not
only Hyper-V and VMware vSphere Hvpervisor, but
Reference: System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012: VMM Gets Major Upgrade
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a remote access solution that meets the VPN requirements.
Which role service should you include in the recommendation?
A. Routing
B. Network Policy Server
C. DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
D. Host Credential Authorization Protocol
070-413 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Scenario:
A server that runs Windows Server 2012 will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
Network Policy Server
Network Policy Server (NPS) allows you to create and enforce organization-wide network access policies for client health, connection request authentication, and
connection request authorization. In addition, you can use NPS as a Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) proxy to forward connection requests
to a server running NPS or other RADIUS servers that you configure in remote RADIUS server groups. NPS allows you to centrally configure and manage network
access authentication, authorization, are client health policies with the following three features: RADIUS server. NPS performs centralized authorization,
authorization, and accounting for wireless, authenticating switch, remote access dial-up and virtual private network (VNP) connections. When you use NPS as a
RADIUS server, you configure network access servers, such as wireless access points and VPN servers, as RADIUS clients in NPS. You also configure network
policies that NPS uses to authorize connection requests, and you can configure RADIUS accounting so that NPS logs accounting information to log files on the
local hard disk or in a Microsoft SQL Server database.
Reference: Network Policy Server
QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a Group Policy strategy to support the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the AllComputers OU in each domain.
B. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to litwareinc.com and configure filtering.
C. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to each domain.
D. Link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Boston site.
Correct Answer: D
070-413 pdf Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only. Deploy an application named Appl to all of the users in the Boston office only. Migrate to IPv6 addressing
on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office.
QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that NAP meets the technical requirements.
Which role services should you install?
A. Network Policy Server, Health Registration Authority and Host Credential Authorization Protocol
B. Health Registration Authority, Host Credential Authorization Protocol and Online Responder
C. Certification Authority, Network Policy Server and Health Registration Authority
D. Online Responder, Certification Authority and Network Policy Server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
* Scenario:
Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
* Health Registration Authority
Applies To: Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012 Health Registration Authority (HRA) is a component of a Network Access Protection (NAP)
infrastructure that plays a central role in NAP Internet Protocol security (IPsec) enforcement. HRA obtains health certificates on behalf of NAP clients when they
are compliant with network health requirements. These health certificates authenticate NAP clients for IPsec-protected communications with other NAP clients on
an intranet. If a NAP client does not have a health certificate, the IPsec peer authentication fails and the NAP client cannot initiate communication with other IPsec
protected computers on the network. HRA is installed on a computer that is also running Network Policy Server (NPS) and Internet Information Services (IIS). If

they are not already installed, these services will be added when you install HRA.
Reference: Health Registration Authority

Testlet 1
Topic 4, Northwind Traders
Overview
Northwind Traders is a retail company.
The company has offices in Montreal and San Diego. The office in Montreal has 1,000 client computers. The office in San Diego has 100 computers. The
computers in the San Diego office are often replaced. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
070-413 dumps Existing Environment
Active Directory Environment
The network contains an Active Directory forest named northwindtraders.com. The forest contains two domains named northwindtraders.com and
west.northwindtraders.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All client computers run Windows 7.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The site in the Montreal office is named Site1. The site in the San Diego office is named Site2.
The forest contains four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

070-413

DC1, DC2, and DC3 are writable domain controllers. R0DC1 is read-only domain controller (RODC). All DNS zones are Active Directory-integrated. All zones
replicate to all of the domain controllers.
All of the computers in the San Diego office are configured to use RODC1 as their only DNS server.
The northwindtraders.com domain contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GP01 is applied to all of the users in the Montreal office.
All of the user accounts for the Montreal users are in the northwindtraders.com domain. All of the user accounts for the San Diego users are in the
west.northwindtraders.com domain.
Network Environment
Site1 contains the member servers in the northwindtraders.com domain shown in the following table.
070-413

Server1 connects to SAN storage that supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX). All virtual hard disks (VHDs) are stored on the SAN.
A web application named App1 is installed on Servers.
Server3 has a shared folder that contains sales reports. The sales reports are read frequently by the users in both offices. The reports are generated automatically
once per week by an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
A perimeter network in the Montreal office contains two standalone servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table

070-413

The servers in the perimeter network are accessible from the Internet by using a domain name suffix of public.northwindtraders.com.
Each administrator has a management computer that runs Windows 8.1.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Northwind Traders plans to implement the following changes:
On Server1, create four virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

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  • Design and implement functional networks
  • Configure, manage, and maintain essential network devices
  • Use devices such as switches and routers to segment network traffic and create resilient networks
  • Identify benefits and drawbacks of existing network configurations
  • Implement network security, standards, and protocols
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QUESTION 1
An organization recently installed a firewall on the network. Employees must be able to send and receive email from a
POP3 server. In which of the following ways should the firewall be configured? (Select TWO).
A. Allow TCP port 23
B. Allow TCP port 25
C. Allow TCP port 110
D. Allow UDP port 25
E. Allow UDP port 110
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
A technician arrives at a new building to find cabling has been run and terminated, but only the wall ports have been
labeled. Which of the following tools should be utilized to BEST facilitate labeling the patch panel?
A. Tone generator
B. Cable tester
C. Multimeter
D. Loopback adapter
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network technician is configuring user\\’s access to a VPN concentrator and has advised to use a protocol that
supports encryption over UDP. Which of the following protocols has the technician MOST likely configured for client
use?
A. TFTP
B. DTLS
C. DNS
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
The length of an IPv6 address is:
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Zach, a technician, suspects a duplicate IP address assignment on the network. Which of the following resources can
be used to verify this problem?
A. Network map
B. Environmental monitor
C. Placement map
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Jeff, a network technician, is installing a wireless router. Which of the following should Jeff consider to get the BEST
signal strength?
A. WAP placement
B. PoE devices
C. MAC filtering
D. Encryption type
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A network technician is implementing a solution on the network to hide the workstation internal IP addresses across a
WAN. Which of the following is the technician configuring?
A. QoS
B. DMZ
C. RIP
D. NAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following protocols is used to transmit outgoing email?
A. RDP
B. NTP
C. POP3
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following cables has the MOST twists per inch?
A. CAT3
B. CAT5
C. CAY5e
D. CAT6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The software that allows a machine to run multiple operating systems at once is called the:
A. Server manager
B. Hypervisor
C. Boot loader
D. Partition manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following protocols are used for accessing a command line terminal session for management purposes?
(Select TWO).
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. SSH
E. RDP
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following MUST be implemented to share metrics between routing protocols within the same router?
A. Routing loop
B. Routing table
C. Route redistribution
D. Dynamic routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A network technician is trying to terminate CAT5 modular jacks. Which of the following tools would be MOST
appropriate for this scenario?
A. Crimper
B. OTDR
C. Throughput tester
D. Punch down tool
Correct Answer: D

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  • Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
  • Exam Code: FC0-U61
  • Exam Price: $119 (USD)
  • Duration: 60 mins
  • Number of Questions: 75
  • Passing Score: 650 / 900

Topics Covered in CompTIA FC0-U61 Certification Exam:

  • IT Concepts and Terminology (17%)
  • Infrastructure (22%)
  • Applications and Software (18%)
  • Software Development (12%)
  • Database Fundamentals (11%)
  • Security (20%)

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QUESTION 1
A small company wants to set up a server that is accessible from the company network as well as the Internet. Which of
the following is MOST important to determine before allowing employees to access the server remotely?
A. The quality of the computer used to connect
B. A security method of allowing connections
C. The employees\\’ home ISP speeds
D. The geographical location of the employees
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error stating the operation could not be
completed. Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.
B. Enable task scheduling.
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which of the following situations should there be come expectation of privacy?
A. Posting a comment on a friend\\’s social media page
B. Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site
C. Posting a comment on a video sharing site
D. Sending email and pictures to a close relative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database. Which of the following commands
should the administrator use?
A. SELECT
B. INSERT
C. DELETE
D. UPDATE
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has encountered the same issue before.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Check Knowledge Base.
B. Search local logs.
C. Research possible theories.
D. Question users.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a wireless communication that requires devices to be within 6in of each other to transfer
information?
A. Infrared
B. NFC
C. Bluetooth
D. WiFi
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the FASTEST transfer rate?
A. 1001Kbps
B. 110Mbps
C. 1.22Gbps
D. 123Mbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local
(intranet) pages. Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
A. Renew the IP address.
B. Configure the browser proxy settings.
C. Clear the browser cache.
D. Disable the pop-up blocker
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional statements that will be used by a
computer program to solve problems. Which of the following is being developed?
A. Algorithm
B. Software
C. Pseudocode
D. Flowchart
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is an advantage of installing an application to the cloud?
A. Data is not stored locally.
B. Support is not required.
C. Service is not required.
D. Internet access is not required.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
A. ASCII
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Unicode
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the basic computing operations?
A. Input, process, output, and feedback
B. Input, output, storage, and feedback
C. Input, process, and output
D. Input, process, output, and storage
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to execute a program? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
C. UNIX
D. Windows Server 2012
E. Android
F. Linux
Correct Answer: CF

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QUESTION 1
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3709.8968
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070.AB01
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)
A. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI.
C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions.
E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q3

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.
D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
GUI? (Choose two.)
A. QoS settings
B. IP address of one or more access points
C. SSID
D. profile name
E. management interface settings
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
A. It drops the traffic.
B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
C. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
D. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960x/software/15-0_2_EX/vlan/configuration_guide/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg/b_vlan_152ex_2960-x_cg_chapter_0110.pdf

QUESTION 6
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
A. The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
B. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch.
C. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.
D. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set
to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. The link becomes an access port.
B. The link is in an error disabled state.
C. The link is in a down state.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism
categories on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q9-2

 

QUESTION 10
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
A. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
B. The two routers share the same interface IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.
C. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding.
D. Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is loadbalanced between them.
E. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN
Controller?
A. local
B. mesh
C. flexconnect
D. sniffer
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html

QUESTION 12
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure 200-301 exam questions-q12-2

QUESTION 13
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to
install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
A. platform-as-a-service
B. network-as-a-service
C. software-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service
Correct Answer: D

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CCNP 2020 Change

Cisco certification exam policy after the 24th of Feb, 2020,

To become CCNP certified in any track you need to pass only two exams and no valid CCNA certification required.

The two exams are,

  • The Core Exam
  • The Concentration Exam.
CCNP 2020

Suppose you want to get CCNP certification in security, then you must pass, core exam –350-701 SCOR.

Let’s talk about Cisco 350-701 SCOR

The Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies v1.0 (SCOR 350-701) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNP Security, Cisco Certified Specialist – Security Core, and CCIE Security certifications.

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QUESTION 1
Which API is used for Content Security?
A. NX-OS API
B. IOS XR API
C. OpenVuln API
D. AsyncOS API
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma12-0/api/b_SMA_API_12/test_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
What is the primary role of the Cisco Email Security Appliance?
A. Mail Submission Agent
B. Mail Transfer Agent
C. Mail Delivery Agent
D. Mail User Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Windows supplicant connected to SW2 cannot establish HTTP session using FQDN. Based on the provided outputs,
what could be the potential issue?

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q3

A. Issue with the DACL pushed for the session.
B. Issue with assigned SGT to the session.
C. User is not authenticated.
D. MAB should be used for port authentication and authorization.
E. Issue with assigned VLAN to the session.
F. User is not authorized.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?
A. cross-site scripting
B. water holing
C. DDoS
D. buffer overflow
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buffer_overflow

QUESTION 5
Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?
A. transparent
B. redirection
C. forward
D. proxy gateway
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html

QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise-owned storage?
A. by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs
B. by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server
C. by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal
D. by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
A. WSA
B. Firepower
C. FireSIGHT
D. ASA
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
An engineer needs a solution for TACACS+ authentication and authorization for device administration. The engineer
also wants to enhance wired and wireless network security by requiring users and endpoints to use 802.1X, MAB, or
WebAuth. Which product meets all of these requirements?
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Identity Services Engine
C. Cisco Stealthwatch
D. Cisco AMP for Endpoints
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which benefit does endpoint security provide the overall security posture of an organization?
A. It streamlines the incident response process to automatically perform digital forensics on the endpoint.
B. It allows the organization to mitigate web-based attacks as long as the user is active in the domain.
C. It allows the organization to detect and respond to threats at the edge of the network.
D. It allows the organization to detect and mitigate threats that the perimeter security devices do not detect.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 350-701 exam questions q10-2

QUESTION 11
Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?
A. quality of service
B. time synchronization
C. network address translations
D. intrusion policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. phishing
B. brute force
C. man-in-the-middle
D. DDOS
E. tear drop
Correct Answer: BC

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The Concentration Exam — CCNP Security

300-710 SNCF — Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall (SSNGFW) and Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower Next-Generation IPS (SSFIPS)
300-715 SISE — Implementing and Configuring Cisco Identity Services Engine (SISE)
300-720 SESA — Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)
300-725 SWSA — Securing the Web with Cisco Web Security Appliance (SWSA)
300-730 SVPN — Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN)
300-735 SAUTO — Implementing Automation for Cisco Security Solutions (SAUI)

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QUESTION 1
Which three features does an ASA 5506-X appliance with FirePOWER Services provide? (Choose three.)
A. reliable visibility
B. data loss prevention
C. NGIPS
D. next generation firewall
E. URL filtering
F. Talos
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Which option is the best example of how Cisco solution enable customer\\’s business?
A. faster threat identification
B. better ability to scale and alter your environment
C. best continuous analysis
D. only comprehensive policy enforcement tool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company?
A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs
B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup,
management, and maintenance.
C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced
protection against new threats.
D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco
provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which three options must a customer look for when choosing a security solution provider? (Choose three.)
A. delivers better partner and customer support
B. offers more than just niche products
C. is committed to security
D. generates higher margins on each sale
E. provides solutions at the lowest cost
F. prioritizes one security solution above all else
G. creates new market opportunities
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which component of NGFW and NGIPS provides a unified image that includes the Cisco ASA features and FirePOWER
Services?
A. Firepower Threat Defense
B. Meraki MX
C. Next GenerationlPS
D. Cloudlock
E. Advanced Malware Protection
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning
resources and support?
A. Be the first to receive new innovations
B. Take advantage of incentives programs
C. Access 24-hour support around the word
D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three options does Cisco provide to customers for complete protection againist current security threat? (choose
three)
A. Threat-centric defense
B. Sporadic application analysis
C. Accelerated threat identification
D. Enhanced remediation
E. Accelerated threat identification
F. Manual security intelligence updates
Correct Answer: ACDE

QUESTION 8
Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (Choose three.)
A. enforced device security policies with Meraki
B. CRD and Network Analytics
C. enhanced access and usage control with ISE
D. AnyConect
E. URL filtering
F. secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time?
A. network control
B. investigation
C. threat protection
D. anomaly detection
E. granular visibility
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 11
Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is
scalable?
A. FirePOWER 2100 Series
B. ASA 7000 Series
C. FirePOWER 8000 Series
D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
E. Cisco 800 Series ISR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Why does Software Volume Purchasing streamline software strategy and asset management?
A. Many solutions are offered only on one platform.
B. Customers can choose a license platform bundle that meets their needs.
C. Flexible consumption models provide less value than a la carte.
D. Bundled solutions can be added on to new appliances.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which component of AMP provides the details that customers need to address problems after a breach is identified?
A. context awareness
B. file sandboxing
C. rapid remediation
D. continuous analysis
E. network control
Correct Answer: C

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2020 Related 700-265 Exams

642-655 Wide Area Application Services for Field Engineers (WAASFE)
646-046 Advanced Routing and Switching for Account Managers (ARSAM)
646-656 Cisco Wide Area Application Services for Account Managers (WAASAM)
642-062Routing and Switching Solutions for System Engineers (RSSSE)
642-681Cisco Advanced Wireless LAN for System Engineers (AWLANSE)
642-631Cisco Advanced Wireless LAN for Field Engineers (AWLANFE)
646-671Advanced Wireless LAN for Account Managers (AWLANAM)
646-230Cisco Advanced IP Communications Sales Specialist (AUCAM)
646-578Advanced Security for Account Managers (ASAM)
642-415Cisco Unified Communications Architecture and Design (UCAD)

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