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QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint database aft long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported for configuration synchronization? (Choose two )
A. port profile
B. GEM pre-provisioning
C. configurations rollbacks
D. feature sets
E. FCoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which configuration is needed to extend the EPG out of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Create external bridged networks
B. Statically assign a port to EPG
C Apply a policy between the internal and the external EPG
C. Extend the tenant subnet of the bridge domain out of the fabric
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives multi destination traffic?
A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic
B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic
C. The traffic is suppressed
D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are configuration a group of web servers and you create a contract that uses TCP port
80. Which action allows an external Layer 3 cloud to initiate communication with the EPG that contains the web servers?
A. Configure the EPG as a consumer and L3Out as provider of the contract
B. Configure OSPF to exchange routes between the L3Out and EPG
C. Create a taboo contract and apply it to the EPG
D. Configure the EPG as a provider and L3Out as consumer of the contract.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch. The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens
next is true’?
A. The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch
B. The packet is dropped on the leaf switch
C. The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain
D. The packet is flooded across the entire fabric because it is an unknown unicast.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two )
A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption
B. VEM stops working
C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally
D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption
E. VMware vMotion stops working
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What is the retention period for remotely attached endpoint?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of a Cisco Nexus 1000V Servers Switch allows you to deploy traffic steering for a virtual infrastructure?
A. SOT
B. PVLAN
C. ACL
D. vPath
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit:
For which option is the L3OUT-1 connection used?
A. bridge domain BD2
B. private network CIX1
C. private network Network-2
D. bridge domain BD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a contract between in-band and out-of-band EPGs. Which two descriptions of this contention are true? (Choose two )
A. Filters apply m the incoming direction only
B. Both EPGs must be m one VRF
C. Management statistics are available
D. Shared services for CPU-bound traffic are supported
E. The configuration supports Layer 2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which type of server is needed to provide POAP with a configuration script?
A. DHCP
B. SCP
C. FTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration?
A. The device locates a DHCP server
B. The device enters POAP mode
C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server
D. The device installs software image and a configuration file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two options are advantages of VMware AVS instead of a VMware vDS? (Choose two )
A. AVS supports vPath
B. AVS supports VLAN
C. AVS provides a single point of management for networking
D. AVS supports VXLAN
E. AVS supports micro segmentation
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is used as the link-state routing protocol for a DFA fabric?
A. VXLAN
B. EIGRP
C. Fabric Path IS-IS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?
A. The node is decommissioned
B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The behavior of which packet type can be controlled by selecting unicast mode or flood mode in a bridge domain?
A. ARP
B. unknown unicast
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing?
A. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command
B. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days
C. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command
D. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit :
You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el” Which option is the result of this configuration?
A. The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps
B. The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps
C. The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface.
D. The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )
A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionalityC. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and virtual switch management?
A. VSO
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are deploying L4-L7 services within Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure You need to modify an existing service graph. Where do you configure this?
A. under the provider EPG
B. on a connector within a service graph
C. on a function profile within a service graph
D. on a terminal node within a service graph
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two )
A. the fabric node vector configuration
B. the LLDP adjacency configuration
C. the out of-band management configuration
D. the cluster configuration
E. the APIC LLDP configuration
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 26
Which component is excluded from a device package ZIP file?
A. debug logs
B. device-level configuration parameters
C. function profile
D. device scripts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which type of discovery is used in the Cisco ACI fabric for automatic discovery?
A. ACI
B. Cisco APIC
C. DHCP
D. LLDR
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
When connecting to an external Layer 3 network, which two dynamic routing protocols can be used? (Choose two )
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
D. lS-IS
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which option are L4-L7 devices registered as on a Cisco APIC?
A. one virtual device
B. a cluster
C. one physical device
D. more virtual devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A host connected to a leaf switch sends an ARP request By default, what does the ingress switch do with the ARP requests?
A. Suppress the ARP
B. Send the ARP by using unicast.
C. Send the ARP by using a broadcast
D. Send the ARP by using multicast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
You create a dynamic VLAN pool to be used for Virtual Machine Manager integration On which two other components must you ensure the VLANs m the pool are allowed? (Choose two )
A. AVS
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. the intermediate switch
D. vS witch
E. the Cisco UCS blade system
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco APlC health score will be affected if an EPG does not have a Bridge Domain associated with it ?
A. spine health
B. leaf health
C. tenant health
D. pod health
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit:
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Which option describes the results of running the configuration on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch?
A. A schedule” job named Backup backs up the configuration to a file named backup-cfg.
B. A scheduler job named backup-cfg runs daily at 2:00.
C. A scheduler job named Backup runs twice dailyD. A scheduler job named Backup runs daily at 2 00 and save the configuration to a file named backup-cfg.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which type of Embedded Event Manager component pars events with one or more actions to troubleshoot or recover from the event?
A. monitor
B. action
C. policy
D. event
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
You have a network that has three subnets You migrate the network to a Cisco ACI fabric You want to bridge the three subnets without changing the IP addresses of the endpoints The default gateway for the endpoints does not sit on the ACI
fabric. Which action must you take to keep the three subnets in a single Hood domain?
A. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing disabled within the same EPO Connect the existing subnets to the bridge domains
B. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing disabled and connect the existing subnets to the bridge domain
C. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing enabled and create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domain Connect the existing network to the bridge domain
D. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing enabled within the saw EPG Create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domains and connect the existing network to the bridge domains.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
You discover that a VLAN is not enabled on a leaf port even though on EPG is provisioned.
Which cause of the issue is most likely true?
A. Cisco Discovery protocol is enabled m the interface policy group
B. A VLAN pool is not defined under the associated physical domain
C. The VLAN is not specified in a contract
D. An interface policy must define the VLAN pool
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit:
You perform the configuration as shown in the exhibit Which two additional tasks must you perform to deploy EPG on PC . VPC . or Interface? (Choose two )
A. Add the border leaf node to the Layer 2 outside connection
B. Create an Attachable Access Entity Profile
C. Create a Layer 2 outside connection
D. Create a physical domain and a VLAN pool for the physical domain, and associate the physical domain to the EPG WEB
E. Extend the VLAN represented by EPG out pi the Cisco ACI fabric
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
Which two method does a Cisco APIC supports to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance? (Choose two.)
A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN D in band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
B. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
C. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
D. in band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 39
What occurs when you make an interface a member of an existing VRF m Cisco NX-OS?
A. The a VRF-Aware services start to be filtered
B. You are prompted to enter an IP address assignment
C. All of the Layer 3 configurations are removed
D. The state of the interface is changed to down
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
You need to create and configure a VRF for IP forwarding on a Cisco Nexus Series Switch running in NX-OS. Drag and drop the configuration steps from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.
pass4itsure 300-170 question

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Latest effective Cisco 300-175 exam dumps, online Cisco 300-175 Practice Test

Actual effective Cisco 300-175 Exam dumps! Select Pass4itsure 300-175 VCE dump or 300-175 PDF dump to help you pass the first exam,
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QUESTION 1
You manage Cisco UCS -Series Rack-Mount Servers. Which three components can you upgrade by using the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility? (Choose three.)
A. the LAN on motherboard
B. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller
C. the operating system images
D. the system BIOS
E. the fabric interconnects
F. the FEX modules
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/lomug/2- 0x/b_huu_2_0_3/b_huu_2_0_3_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can a user with the ext-lan-policy privileges perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure management interfaces on the fabric interconnect.
B. Configure Ethernet pin groups.
C. Configure management interfaces monitoring policy.
D. Create/modify/delete vNIC/vHBA placement policies.
E. Configure DNS providers and DNS domain.
F. Specify the allowed range for virtual MAC addresses.
G. Configure fabric interconnect system name.
H. This privilege has full access to all operations.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 21/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_G uide_1_2 _1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guid e_1_2_1_chapter9.html

QUESTION 4
You must upgrade a Cisco UCS -Series Server. Where must the Cisco UCS bundle image be located before you can begin the upgrade?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller memory of the server
B. a USB drive connected to a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
C. a TFTP server accessible to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
D. the flash file system of the fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware- mgmt/gui/21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/downloading_and_managing_firmware_in _cisco_ucs_mana
ger.html#concept_1923688E7A2E46239DCAE363E4A3DE81

QUESTION 5
From the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which two configurations can be performed for Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Servers from the rack server discovery policy? (Choose two.)
A. Whether the server is discovered immediately or after the acknowledgement of the administrator
B. Defines the scrub policy to be used upon discovery
C. Defines the management IP address to be associated to the server upon discovery
D. Reverts a -Series server from Cisco UCS domain mode to standalone mode
E. Defines the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility ISO file for the rack servers connected to the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 6
An administrator is testing the Cisco Nexus 1000v switch on top of a Cisco UCS Blade. They realize that the test VM traffic is not marked correctly after it leaves the Cisco UCS B- series blade. What is the reason for seeing this behavior?
A. The Cisco UCS does not support QoS marking
B. The Cisco UCS QoS policy applied to the blade has the host control set to “none.”
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches do not support QoS marking.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch QoS marking has not been enabled with “feature gos.”
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?
A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement is true regarding this setup created by this configuration?
A. The NIC bypasses the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets
B. The applications interact directly with the OS Kernel
C. All of the other vNICs in the server are deleted and replaced by the usnic.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computi ng/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b_Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_C SeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco VM-FEX dynamic vNIC configuration and provisioning by using the Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by using SNMP.
B. Dynamic vNIC parameters must be configured manually before the virtual machine connects to its port group.
C. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured dynamically after the assigned virtual machine connects to the port group.
D. Dynamic vNIC parameters are enabled by using the Fibre Channel Forwarder protocol.
E. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by inheriting the port-group parameters of the associated virtual machines.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/ n5k_ops_vmfex.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of a WWN pool are true? (Choose two.)
A. a collection of WWNs for use by the iSCSI interfaces in a Cisco UCS instance
B. a collection of Ethernet MAC addresses assigned to the Ethernet adapters in a Cisco UCS instance
C. a pool of WW port names, where WWPN is the port name assigned to the Fibre Channel port on the adapter
D. a collection of management IP addresses used to connect to servers
E. a pool of WW node names, where WWNN belongs to the node
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 31/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_ chapter22.html

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the purpose of a storage connection policy in Cisco UCS Manager is true?
A. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when vHBAs are configured in a service profile.
B. It defines how zoning is configured for initiators and targets on the fabric interconnect.
C. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when storage devices connect to the fabric interconnects.
D. It defines the number of storage connections that are allowed to connect to the fabric interconnects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which three options are valid system classes for QoS in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose three.)
A. platinum
B. silver
C. best effort
D. voice
E. high-priority
F. FCoE
G. drop eligible
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Based on the output, which statement about the fabric interconnect is true?
A. The fabric interconnect floods multicast traffic in VLAN 100.
B. 10 groups in the fabric interconnect have been configured for VLAN 100 access.
C. After adding VLAN 100, no other changes were made.
D. IGMP snooping was enabled by the admin for VLAN 100.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 3 screenshot of UCS Manager. Which two items are required to configure an IPMI profile? (Choose two.)
A. IPMI Type
B. User
C. Role
D. Locale
E. Administrative State
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111 00.html#d129007e3491a1635

QUESTION 15
Which three options are needed when configuring local zoning on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC switching mode.
B. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC end-host mode.
C. SAN connectivity policy
D. storage connection policy
E. FC target endpoints
F. iSCSI target endpoints
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two factors determine the recommended maximum number of virtual interfaces on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. the number of compute blades in the system
B. the number of interfaces sharing the uplinks
C. the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade
D. the number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2- 0-2/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration/b_UCSM_202_CIntegration_chapter_01.html#reference_7F381038303B4825A CD303765905086A
The number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/Reference- Docs/ConfigurationLimits/31/b_UCS_Configuration_Limits_3_1.html the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade

QUESTION 17
Which three components perform the port extension functions for a Cisco UCS domain? (Choose three.)
A. the multiprotocol port on the Cisco storage
B. the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. the Cisco UCS 2208XP IOMs
D. the Cisco UCS Manager
E. the Cisco Nexus 2232PP FEX
F. the Cisco UCS VIC adapter that has VM-FEX and Adapter FEX technology
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which two policies can specify that a port channel be configured between the fabric extender and fabric interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Chassis or fabric extender discovery policy
B. Rack server discovery policy
C. Rack management connection policy
D. Server inheritance policies
E. Autoconfig policies
F. Chassis connectivity policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 19
Which boot option must be present in the boot policy to have the option to manually boot from the FlexFlash Secure Digital card?
A. any configuration
B. FlexFlash state
C. local disk
D. remote virtual drive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser CardCorrect Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C240M4/install/C240M4 /replace.html

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/apic- management-guide/5-
4/b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_Guide_54b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_G uide_54_chapter_011.html Step 1 On the menu bar, choose Administration > Physical Accounts.
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/raid/configuration/guide/ RAID_GUIDE.pdf

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/oui-for-wwn-and-macs/td- p/1441710
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/when-to-use-wwnn-and- wwpn-pools/tdp/1614344
http://www.vmwareadmins.com/using-a-address-naming-convention-with-cisco-ucs/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MAC_address

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/4 21_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1/Cisco_n5k_nxos_s
answitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1_chapter7.html#con_133799

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-5000-seriesswitches/117690- configure-vmfex-00.html

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 .html

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/smb-technologist/installing-vsphere-on-cisco-ucs-cseries- servers/

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server TroubleshootingCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b _Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_CSeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1 F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link
technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
M81KR (supports many adapters and VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/data_sheet_c78-525049.html M72KR-Q (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-623738.html M71KR-E (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-703582.html P81E (supports many adapters, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ collateral/servers -unified-computing/ucs-c-series- rack-servers/ data_sheet_c78-558230.html M51KR-B (this is not a converged network adapter CNA, and does not support vHBAs)
https:// www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b- series-blade- servers/spec_sheet_c17-644236.pdf

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 1.html

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/confi g_guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_ UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/benefits-to-vpc-on-6200s- fabric-interconnects-inucs/td-p/2086588

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and
IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111
10.html#concept_3735BFD6DA5A49CF90B1B4EEE6BCBF25

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter7.html

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1XCorrect Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins: Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5 D2DA1FC

QUESTION 42
Which option describes the difference between “high-performance” and “none” on a VM- FEX port profile?
A. None is software assisted, and high-performance is software and hardware assisted.
B. None indicates that VM-FEX is not used on this interface, and high-performance indicates that is used.
C. None is used for management profiles, and high-performance is used for mission-critical data profiles.
D. None assumes default scheduling settings for the port profile, and high-performance gives the ports priority in scheduling.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 43
You are configuring integration between the Cisco UCS Manager and the VMware vCenter Server Appliance. Which three actions must you perform from the Cisco Configure VMware Integration Wizard? (Choose three.)
A. Define the virtual machine port profile in the Cisco UCS Manager for virtual machine traffic.
B. Install and register the Cisco UCS Manager extension as a plug-in in the VMware vCenter.
C. Install and register the VMware VM Console plug-in in the Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Apply a port profile (port group) to the virtual machines on the VMware vCenter server.
E. Apply the Firewall Services Module UCS service profile to Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server.
F. Apply a fabric profile to both Cisco Fabric Interconnect uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/2-2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-
FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2_1_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 44
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 4 screenshot of the UCS Manager. Which item can only be configured in the Storage Cloud?
A. iQN Pools
B. Storage FC Clinks
C. Port Channels
D. VSANs
E. Zoning
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucsinfrastructure- ucs-manager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html

QUESTION 45
Which statement about an iSCSI vNIC when it is created with an overlay NIC is true?
A. It can have any VLAN allowed on it.
B. It can be assigned a unique MAC address.
C. It can have a unique pin group assigned to it.
D. It can have only the overlays native VLAN associated to it.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Which backup option must be performed from the Cisco UCS Manager to allow for a system restore?
A. Database backup
B. Logical configuration
C. System configuration
D. Full state
E. All configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter43.html

QUESTION 47
You have chosen to defer updates to service profiles and to schedule updates. Which option do you modify in the maintenance-policy to accomplish this goal?
A. Reboot Policy
B. Schedule
C. Description
D. Other
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two settings are required when utilizing DirectPath I/O? (Choose two.)
A. CPU pinning
B. full memory reservation
C. Set port profile performance to “high”.
D. vCPU pinning
E. VM queue modification
F. adapter profile update
G. Install DirectPath VIB on host.
H. Enable VMQ with the “enable-netadaptervmq” cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 49
When performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager, which backup type must you do to backup locally authenticated users?
A. System configuration
B. All configuration
C. Full State
D. Logical Configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
A service profile is created using vHBAs. What will happen if the profile is applied to a server with a mezzanine card without storage capability?
A. The blade association will fail.
B. The storage adapter will not be visible to the operating system.
C. A virtual storage adapter will be created.
D. A WWNN or a WWPN will be autoselected from the default pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/data-center-blogs/c-series-resolve-service-profile- association-failure-when/ba-p/3103082 https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#topic_4B2EC5A485E54A2893D02A7BB5F 3E039 In addition to any guidelines or recommendations that are specific to policies and pools included in service profiles and service profile
templates, such as the local disk configuration policy, you need to be aware of the following guidelines and recommendations that impact the ability to associate a service profile with a server.

QUESTION 51
Which parameter can be configured during the initial system setup of Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect from the CLI, without restoring the configuration from an existing backup?
A. the server ports, network ports, and storage ports
B. the reserved VLAN IDs
C. the default number of dynamic vNICs
D. standalone mode or cluster mode of the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_0101.html#task_40AC6321816C401EBF1666DB32F6E954

QUESTION 52
Which boot option is recommended for a boot policy because it offers the most service profile mobility within a system?
A. iSCSI boot
B. local disk boot
C. LAN boot
D. SAN boot
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 53
You attempt to perform an ESXi update on a Cisco UCS C250 server, but the update does not recognize the NICs. You must perform the update as quickly as possible. Which step must you do first?
A. Check the UCS compatibility matrix and replace the NIC with a supported one.
B. Reconfigure the NIC ID on the LOM.
C. Update the LOM firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
D. Update the NIC firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/ucs240m3-network- interfaces-missing-on-esxi-5-1u1/td-p/2415392 http://terenceluk.blogspot.com/2011/08/updating-firmware-for-cisco-ucs-c.html

QUESTION 54
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates with the line “pinning server pinning-failure link-down”?
A. Dynamic vNIC Connection
B. Link Protocol
C. Flow Control
D. Network Control
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- 5100-seriesblade-server-chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_010101.html#concept_80DD753607A0427A9874F278E172F2FA

QUESTION 55
Which two options are valid server pool policy qualifications? (Choose two.)
A. server model
B. description
C. user label
D. power group
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 56
Which two constructs allow for configuration of VLANs on specific uplink ports? (Choose two.)
A. LAN pin group
B. adapter policies
C. vNIC templates
D. VLAN manager
E. link profiles
F. VLAN groups
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter17.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter14.html

QUESTION 57
Under which condition can you select the option to “remove” a blade server from within the Cisco UCS Manager?
A. The server has been decommissioned before physical removal.
B. The server has been sent a diagnostic interrupt.
C. The server has been physically removed before decommission.
D. The server has been powered down.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Which policy is used to specify how Cisco UCS Manager should proceed for configuration changes that will have a service impact?
A. host firmware policy
B. maintenance policy
C. local disk policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration.
A. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FCoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapt er_0110.html

QUESTION 60
The system-reserved VLANs within Cisco UCS are 3968 to 4048 by default. Where can a user change the starting value of this range?
A. VLAN manager
B. global policies
C. LAN cloud
D. cannot be changed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 61
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max number of concurrent tasks
B. max changes
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 62
Which statement about fabric failover for Fibre Channel communication is true?
A. You can enable hardware Fibre Channel failover.
B. Cisco UCS load balances Fibre Channel traffic between the two fabrics.
C. You must use a Fibre Channel multipath I/O driver.
D. You do not have to use anything.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/san-multi-pathing-best- practices/td-p/1545645
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/unified-computing- system/116471-configure-npiv-00.html#anc9
https://kb.netapp.com/support/s/article/how-to-verify-windows-fibre-channel-configurations- with-multipathing-io-mpio?language=en_US

QUESTION 63
Which technology makes VM-FEX possible?
A. VXLAN
B. VNTAG
C. VPC
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 64
With Cisco UCS Manager, in which location do you monitor the chassis discovery process?
A. CMC
B. FSM
C. CDP
D. DME
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 011.html

QUESTION 65
You configure a service profile template from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI by using the Create Local Disk Configuration Policy option The No RAID local disk policy mode is selected and the Protect Configuration property is disabled. You
create a service profile that is created from the service profile template. You apply the service profile to a server that has an operating system installed on a RAID-10 volume. Which statement about the server after it is associated to the
service profile is true?A. The server has RAID-0 configured on the local disk.
B. The server has RAID-1 configured on the local disk.
C. The server has the local storage detached.
D. The local disk of the server remains RAID-10.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 66
Which two statements about the provisioning of Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VT-D feature on the ESX host server must be disabled before you can enable VMDirectPath.
B. VM-FEX standard mode is the same as VM-FEX high-performance mode.
C. Enabling high performance turns on VMDirectPath mode.
D. VMDirectPath mode prevents the use of VMware vMotion.
E. To use Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode, a virtual machine must have a dynamic vNIC and two static vNICs on the VIC adapter.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center- virtualization/unifiedcomputing/vm_fex_best_practices_deployment_guide.html

QUESTION 67
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/bladeservers/install/B200.html

QUESTION 68
When deploying a dynamic FCoE topology using ECMP, what ancillary technology is used?
A. Fabricpath
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/datacenter/what-is-dynamic-fcoe

QUESTION 69
Which maintenance action releases the assigned chassis ID for future use?
A. Acknowledge chassis
B. Reset CMOS
C. Decommission chassis
D. Remove chassis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/22/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/managing_the_chassis.html#task_EB93895D63664D86ACDE9D13C222A452

QUESTION 70
Which of the following supports more than two component-resident versions of firmware?
A. mezzanine adapters
B. I/O modules
C. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
D. CIMCs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/110511-ucs-fw-mgmt-00.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/FirmwareMgmt/31/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_G
UI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_011.html#task_C8E850B883D741BFBEF 0FBBA409C6CB7

QUESTION 71
Which two parameters are used by Cisco UCS for automatic Fibre Channel uplink pinning?
A. server WWN
B. MDS WWNN
C. VSAN membership
D. hash algorithm
E. vHBA MAC address
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapter_011000.html https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/
sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010110.html#task_2F3F6BFFC4384A2F8809492F9DE8FD23

QUESTION 72
Which four physical connections on a fabric interconnect are needed to perform the initial system setup for a cluster configuration? (Choose four.)
A. Ethernet uplink ports connected to upstream switch
B. console port connected to a computer terminal or console server.
C. Layer 1 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
D. Layer 1 port of the first fabric interconnect connected to Layer 2 port of the second fabric interconnect
E. Layer 2 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
F. Fibre Channel uplink ports connected to upstream fabric switch
G. management Ethernet port (mgmt0) connected to external switch or router
H. port channel to each fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: BCEG
Explanation

QUESTION 73
Which policy determines what happens to local disks when they are disassociated from a service profile?
A. maintenance policy
B. local disk policyC. scrub policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 74
Which two components can be specified in a host firmware package? (Choose two.)
A. CPU
B. BIOS
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
D. LOM
E. DIMM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 75
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 76
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which log would you view to determine which UCS Manager user modified a Service Profile?
A. Events
B. Audit
C. Syslog
D. SEL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101101.html

QUESTION 77
Which three parameters can be configured for a vHBA? (Choose three.)
A. Enable persistent binding.B. Enable a hardware-based failover.
C. Define a SAN pin group
D. Assign a QoS policy.
E. Define an MTU.
F. Assign a MAC address.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/21/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110 10.html

QUESTION 78
While configuring communication between vCenter and Cisco UCS, which two items are contained in the extension file? (Choose two.)
A. extension key
B. plug-in version information
C. SSL private certificate
D. Cisco UCS Manager SSL public certificate
E. SSH public key
F. Cisco UCS Manager admin credentials
G. IP address of the hosts utilizing VM link
H. vCenter SSL public certificate
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are a result of utilizing org permissions on VLANs within a sub- org? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs can be defined only once globally.
B. VLAN IDs can be defined within each sub-org.
C. VLAN name must match across orgs and sub-orgs.
D. VLAN name can be different per sub-org.
E. Sub-org vNICs can utilize parent org VLANs.
F. Parent org vNICs can utilize sub-org VLANs.
G. Sub-org vNICs can utilize only parent org native VLANs.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 80
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. Which item is true about Boot Order in Cisco UCS – Series Rack Servers?
A. Boot order configured in the BIOS will not be reflected in the Cisco IMC GUI.
B. Boot options should not be disabled in the BIOS.
C. The Boot Order set in the BIOS does not override the Cisco IMC.
D. Boot Order should only be configured in the Cisco IMC GUI.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
Which command sequence in the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server CLI sends tech support data to a TFTP server?
A. ucs-c250 / # scope cimc
ucs-c250 /cimc # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# commit
B. ucs-c250 / # scope system
ucs-c250 /system # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# commit
C. ucs-c250 / # scope support
ucs-c250 /support # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# commit
D. ucs-c250 / # scope fault
ucs-c250 /fault # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# commit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_1_1_2_chapter13.html#task_551DFD0E88124951A54DC305C29F7F7C This example creates a support data file and transfers the file to a TFTP server:
Server# scope cimc
Server /cimc # scope tech-support
Server /cimc/tech-support # set tftp-ip 10.20.30.41 Server /cimc/tech-support *# set path /user/user1/supportfile Server /cimc/tech-support *# commit Server /cimc/tech-support # start Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/

QUESTION 82
Which four Cisco UCS components use the Cisco NX-OS syslog services to generate syslog entries for system information and alerts? (Choose four.)
A. I/O module
B. fabric interconnect
C. chassis
D. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
E. Cisco UCS Manager
F. adapter
G. Ethernet uplink
H. storage moduleCorrect Answer: ADEF
Explanation

QUESTION 83
Which statement about the Cisco Integrated Management Controller configuration utility for Cisco UCS CSeries servers is true?
A. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports SSL3 and HTLM5.
B. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports HTTP and Microsoft Silverlight.
C. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco In Management Controller to use a static IP address only.
D. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco Integrated Management Controller to use a static IP address or an IP address from DHCP
E. When the IP address is configured in BIOS, you can point a Web browser to the configured IP address to open the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c200-m1-high- density-rack-mountserver/111455-setup-cimc-c-series.html

QUESTION 84
You have been tasked with performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager that can be used to restore the system during disaster recovery. Which type of backup must you perform?
A. System configuration
B. Full state
C. All configuration
D. Logical configuration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/AdminManagement/31/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Ad
min_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_01001.html#task_C1FFA04FACF24B818316B802FC11E B19

QUESTION 85
Which Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is capable of RAID 5?
A. B200
B. B250
C. B230
D. B440
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B200 2 Bays
B250 2 Bays
B230 2 BaysB440 4 Bays
The only server that could possibly support RAID 5 is the B440 Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5 RAID 5 requires at least 3 disks.

QUESTION 86
Which two parameters must be configured on a standalone Cisco UCS C-Series Server to export the technical support data to a remote server? (Choose two)
A. Specify a remote TFTP server IP address.
B. Install a certificate
C. Install an FTP server
D. Set the source as the UCS server IP address.
E. Specify the remote relative path and file name.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_Cisco_UCS_Cseries_GUI_Configuration_Guide_201.pdf

QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tables correctly map the HIF ports to active FEX NIF ports on a Cisco UCS 2208X IOM in discrete pinning mode?
A. Table 2 and Table 4
B. Table 1 and T able 4
C. Table 2 and Table 3
D. Table 1 and Table 2
E. Table 3 and Table 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/guide/UCSTroubleshooting/ UCSTr oubleshooting_chapter_01001.html

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.
Boot Uption #1
Internal EFI Shell
SATA: HL-DT-STDVDRAM GT40N
IBA GE Slot 1600 v1335
Cisco Virtual FDD/HDD 1.22
(Bus 12 Dev 00) PCI RAID Adapter
Disabled
Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?
A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot optionC. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which options is the only supported link aggregation protocol on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Multipath
B. PagP
C. FLOGI
D. LACP
E. FCOE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
UCS port channel configuration is statically set to Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) mode active. This configuration cannot be modified; therefore, all upstream port- channel configurations must adhere to LACP mode active as well.
Alternatively, you can configure the upstream switchports for LACP mode passive.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/116095-configure-ucsupstream-port-channel-00.html

QUESTION 90
Which two AAA protocols are supported by a remote AAA database? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_FAA777771F5D4F14A82A479CE D0D4AF 4
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Which statement is true regarding the port channel 100 and 101 configurations between the Nexus 7010 switches?
A. The vPC assignments on N7010-C2 are incorrectly swapped
B. N7010-C1 is not allowing any active VLAN traffic to pass on Po100 and Po101.
C. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
D. The vPC peer-keepalive is down between the two Nexus 7000 switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. What is the problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are attempting to configure boot from SAN on your server that is attached to a Cisco MDS 9148 Fibre Channel switch. What is a possible issue that may occur?
A. Check the status of the licenses on the Fibre Channel switch.
B. NPV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
C. NPIV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
D. Boot from SAN is not supported via the Fibre Channel protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When you ping your new Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, you see this output:
!!…!!…!!…!!…!!…
What could be the problem?
A. Traffic may be taking a bad route through the network.
B. HSRP is flapping.
C. CoPP is rate-limiting the pings.
D. The switch has high CPU utilization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why do the lists not contain the same switches, after you issue the commands show cfs peers name and show cfs merge status?
A. The merge cannot occur until the VSAN IDs are synched.
B. The Cisco Fabric Services fabric has a physical port fault that should be investigated.
C. The fabric is partitioned into multiple Cisco Fabric Services fabrics.
D. Cisco Fabric Services need to be restarted to see the new switches.
E. A Cisco Fabric Services database lock has prevented the merge.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of an OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otv aed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv vlan on any edge devices in the site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator sets up a FabricPath network. The administrator tries to ping between two SVI interfaces on the leaf switches 10 and 20, but it fails. What caused the pings to fail?
A. Switches S10 and S20 do not have F2 modules.
B. The vPC peer gateway must be enabled on switches S10 and S20.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 should be interconnected directly.
D. VLAN 10 is not enabled on the spine switches (S1, S2, and S3).
E. Layer 3 over a vPC+ peer link is not supported.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in the local site? (Choose two.)
A. show otv overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch will show the interface information for port 10 on the connected FEX 100?
A. show interface Ethernet 100/10
B. show fex 100 interface Ethernet 1/10
C. show interface Ethernet 100/1/10
D. show interface Ethernet 1/100/10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are three situations that may cause an ISSU failure? (Choose three.)
A. A module is removed while the upgrade is in progress.
B. A proper ISSU license is not in place.
C. The device has a power disruption while the upgrade is in progress.
D. A line card is in a failure state.
E. The specified system and kickstart images are not compatible.
F. The management interface is not in the correct VRF.G. The secondary supervisor is not installed.
H. The redundancy force-switchover command was used during the ISSU.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
Which command helps to determine if there are any conflicts in the network with respect to a FabricPath configuration?
A. show licenses
B. show fabricpath conflict
C. show fabricpath conflict all
D. switchport mode fabricpath
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer’s representatives want to know how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command is
useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issu test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding trunking on an ISL between two switches in order for the VSAN to be trunked? (Choose three.)
A. The VSAN must be defined on both switches.
B. The VSAN must be on the VSAN allowed list.
C. All VSANs that are being trunked must be using either enhanced or non-enhanced mode zoning, but not both.
D. IVR must be configured for Cisco Fabric Services.
E. The device alias database must successfully merge.
F. There cannot be any duplicate domain IDs within an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator is deploying FCoE; however, a VFC interface will not come up. The administrator executes the commandshow platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc and displays the output.
What is the problem?
A. An incorrect VSAN number is being used.
B. The connected host does not support FIP.
C. FCoE is not enabled.
D. Priority flow control is not being negotiated with the converged network adapter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You receive a priority 1 trouble ticket that there is OSPF route instability in the data center core Cisco Nexus 7018 Switches. Which command is useful to help validate a theory that hello packets are being throttled?
A. N7018# show class-map interface control-plane
B. N7018# show policy-map interface control-plane
C. N7018# show service-policy interface control-plane
D. N7018# show copp status
E. N7018# show copp statistics
F. N7018# show control-plane class copp-system-class-critical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have enabled configuration synchronization between two Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switches. You create a port channel on switch 1 and determine that it was not synchronized with its peer. The peer switch can be pinged on the
management VRF. When you check your peer status, you receive a “peer not reachable” message in the command output. What is the explanation for this?
A. CDP is disabled.
B. An LACP mismatch exists on the peer interfaces.
C. UDLD is disabled.
D. CFSoIP is disabled.
E. Multicast routing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
While troubleshooting HSRP adjacency, a packet analyzer captures the remote packet with the information: IP 224.0.0.102 with a MAC address of 0000.0C9F.0256. The DCI local group number is 256.
Which solution resolves the problem?
A. Request that the remote data center change the HSRP version to V1.
B. Report the issue as a suspected bug because the group number is correct based on the analyzer.
C. Request that the remote data center verifies that they do not have an HSRP password configured.
D. Request that the remote data center to use the correct HSRP group number.
E. Change the local HSRP version to V1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in all sites in the overlay? (Choose two.)A. show otv adjacency overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 27
To ensure that DCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A customer calls you to report that it receives an error when entering the pinning max-links 4 command in FEX configuration mode on its Cisco Nexus 5596T Switch. Which of these is a likely cause for this condition?
A. The FEX fabric interface is down.
B. The transceiver is incorrect.
C. A fabric interface is in a port channel.
D. The fabric interface switchport mode is set to Access.
E. Only two fabric interfaces are connected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
NPV mode is not operating properly on a Cisco Nexus or Cisco MDS Series Switch. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. An uplink NP port is stuck initializing.
B. The VSAN does not match at each end of the connection.
C. The VLAN does not match at each end of the connection.
D. The license is invalid.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about configuring NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only F, E, and SD ports are supported in NPV mode.
B. Only targets can be connected to an NPV device.
C. Distribute the NPV core switch links to different port groups for improved scalability.
D. If DPVM is configured on the NPV core switch for an end device that is connected to the NPV device, then that end device must be configured to be in the same VSAN.
E. NPV does not support NPIV-capable module servers (nested NPIV).
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 32
When using a Cisco Nexus 5500 and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, how can a port channel interface be configured?
A. Layer 3 interface
B. Layer 3 interface in non-admin VDC only
C. Layer 3 interface in admin VDC only
D. Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which two commands can you issue on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch to determine which interfaces are connected to fabric extenders? (Choose two.)
A. show fex-fabric interface
B. show fex
C. show fex fex-id
D. show fex interface
E. show fex detail
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues cause a problem with the implementation of an OTV between data centers? (Choose two.)
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 35
The traffic across your port channels seems to be favoring one link over the other. How can you adjust the load-balancing policy to include source and destination MAC addresses, IP address, and TCP port?
A. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
B. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
C. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
D. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
What is the cause of the ISSU failure when using the command show system internal csm global info?
A. The command conf-t is holding a lock and not released it.
B. The SSN feature is not enabled on both switches.
C. The reference count is less than 1 due to a lack of successful config-sync.
D. It cannot be determined from the output.
E. An Administrator is logged in on another session and has a lock of the session data base to prevent ISSU.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two commands are used to determine the CoPP profile used on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series? (Choose two.)
A. #show copp profile
B. #show copp diff profile
C. #show copp status
D. #show running-config copp
E. #show policy-map interface control-plane
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 38
The installation of a new OTV network connecting two data centers via a service provider LAN has failed verification steps. Which statement explains why certain types of data are not being successfully transferred across the OTV network?
A. The number of extended VLANs across all configured overlays may be greater than 256.
B. The number of MAC addresses on either edge device may exceed 4000.
C. The additional 42-byte OTV overhead, along with the DF bit being set, may cause the service provider to drop packets based on their 1500 MTU settings.
D. Having more than two edge devices per site is not supported.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
FCoE traffic from C200-1 on VSAN 13 is not being switched through the network. Which statement explains the cause of the problem?
A. The LAN switchport on N5K2 must be configured as a trunk.
B. VLAN 1013 on N5K2 is not allowed on the LAN.
C. The vFC on N5K2 that is associated with VSAN 13 is in the wrong port mode.
D. The M1 card on the Nexus 7000 switch does not support FCoE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 41
There is an ARP storm in VDC 1. Some users on VDC 2 notice that ARP is not resolving for their gateway on the Cisco Nexus core. What is the cause?
A. The ARP CoPP class committed information rate is exceeded, resulting in ARP loss in all VDCs.
B. The administrator has not correctly configured the ARP CoPP class in VDC 2.
C. The ARP traffic in VDC 1 is copied to the host ports in VDC 2, causing overutilization and output discards.
D. Because the ARP process in the default VDC (VDC 1) is responsible for processing ARP traffic for all VDCs, VDC 2 will be affected.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
A customer reports that a 10-Gb interface between a Cisco Nexus 7009 Switch and a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch is not passing traffic. The Nexus 7009 interface indicates up/up. The Nexus 5548UP interface indicates up/down. Which
feature should you enable to help isolate the root cause?
A. CDP
B. GOLD
C. UDLD
D. DAI
E. LACP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which three commands will help an administrator identify any issues with an In-Service Software Upgrade? (Choose three.)
A. show cts interface
B. show incompatibility system
C. show license file
D. show install impact all
E. show lacp issu-impact
F. show install issu-failure
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
t has been determined that unknown unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic is not correctly being switched through either Nexus 7010 switch. Which statement best describes the cause of this issue?
A. No VLANs are allowed across the vPC peer link.
B. The MST STP is not enabled on either switch.
C. The default VLAN is inactive.
D. VTP is not configured to handle this type of traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
You receive an error attempting to enable the vPC feature on a Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch. Which Cisco Fabric Services distribution must be operational before the feature can be enabled?
A. CFSoFC
B. CFSoIP
C. CFSoV
D. CFSoE
E. CFSoM
Correct Answer: D

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 74-678 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. License Mobility through Software Assurance (SA) is an SA benefit that provides users with the right to access Microsoft Office Professional Plus in a company’s Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) from computers that are not company owned, such as kiosk computers at hotels. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. License Mobility within Server Farms
C. Home Use Program
D. Roaming Use Rights
E. Windows Companion Subscription License
74-678 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A customer purchases server licenses through a Select Plus agreement and has a Software Assurance Membership (SAM) for the server pool. To which three SAM benefits is the customer entitled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. E-Learning
B. Roaming Use Rights
C. Planning Services
D. Enhanced Edition Benefits
E. Training Vouchers
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software Assurance Benefits:
There are over a dozen SA benefits and the amount of benefits your organization has depends on the licensing agreement. The list below highlights the most popular benefits associated with Office.
* (a) E-Learning
* (c) Planning services
* New software versions
* (e) Training vouchers
* Home Use Program
* 24×7 phone and web support
* Technet
* Microsoft Office Multi Language Pack
Reference: Microsoft Office 2010 Engineering, Understanding Software Assurance

QUESTION 3
A customer plans to deploy a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) by using Microsoft technologies. Users will access the deployment on-premises and at home from personal computers. You need to tell the customer which Software Assurance (SA) benefits can be used to enable a full VDI deployment. Which three SA benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Windows Roaming Use Rights
B. Visualization Rights for Windows
C. Enhanced Edition Benefits
D. Windows Virtual Desktop Access (VDA) rights
E. Home Use Program
F. Windows Thin PC
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Extended roaming rights
Primary user of a VDA or SA device can access VDI desktop from any device outside the corporate firewall
C: Use any version of Windows
Upgrade/downgrade rights for Windows included
E: Software Assurance (SA) licensing provides Windows desktop customers with technical support, training vouchers, home-use rights and other benefits.

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. builds cloud applications. Microsoft Azure allows the company’s developers to deploy and manage their applications and to pay for only the resources that their applications use. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Windows Intune
C. A Power BI for Office 365 subscription
D. A Microsoft Office 365 Developer subscription
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have mailboxes that use Unified Messaging The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer acquires Microsoft Office 365 add-ons through an Enterprise Agreement. The customer must consult the Volume Licensing Online Services Terms (OST) document to see whether the number of add-ons can be reduced at the anniversary of the agreement. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct
A. No change is needed.
B. Microsoft Product List
C. Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR)
D. Microsoft Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Microsoft Volume Licensing Product Use Rights document, commonly referred to as “the PUR” (pronounced”per”), is part of your Microsoft Volume Licensing agreement. When you need to know how to license a particular product or the specifics of what you can do with that product under the terms of your license agreement, generally, the PUR has the information you need. The PUR details use rights for specific products and details the rights that apply to all software licensed through Microsoft Volume Licensing.
* When you purchase a software license through a Microsoft Volume Licensing program, the terms and conditions for how you can use the software are defined in the Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR) document, Product List document, and program agreement.
Incorrect:
Not B: Product List (PL)
Published monthly, the Microsoft Product List (PL) provides information about availability, discontinuations, migration paths, and subscription benefits for Microsoft software and Online Services acquired through Volume Licensing programs.
not D: Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
The Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR) provides details on how products acquired through the Microsoft Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA) may be used.

QUESTION 7
A company has 1,000 desktop computers that run Windows 8.1. The company also has 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company does not use server visualization.
You need to recommend a solution to manage all of the computers and the servers on the network. Which two licenses should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Standard server management license (ML)
C. Microsoft Core CAL Suite
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter server management license (ML)
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing non-virtualized and lightly virtualized servers
C: Need CAL licenses for the clients.
Incorrect:
Not D: System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers

QUESTION 8
A customer plans to implement a data center. All of the servers in the data center will run Windows Server 2012 R2. The customer will manage all virtual servers by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2. The customer plans to be licensed for unlimited virtualization. You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation. What should you recommend that the customer purchase?
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
B. System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
C. System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter
D. Core Infrastructure Server Suite Datacenter
74-678 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers.

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the tasks that the customer can perform through the Microsoft Volume Licensing Center (MVLC). Which three tasks should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. View and manage licenses purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
B. Order on-premises software.
C. View and manage Software Assurance (SA) benefits purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
D. Self-provision Online Services.
E. View and manage licenses purchased through an existing Select Plus agreement.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Volume Licensing Service Center (VLSC) gives you easy access to:
* (C) Activate and consume Software Assurance benefits
* (D) Download products and keys
Volume Licensing benefits
Access all your licensing information in one location View your relationship summary and license summary details Review the status of your enrollments

QUESTION 10
A company named Contoso, Ltd. does not have an active Volume Licensing agreement. Contoso needs to purchase 575 Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 User Subscription Licenses (USLs). Through which agreement should Contoso acquire the licenses?
A. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
B. Open Value Subscription
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Select Plus
74-678 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPSA can benefit organizations with a minimum of 150 seats.

QUESTION 11
A customer is evaluating the purchase of Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise El User Subscription Licenses (USLs) through a Microsoft Online Subscription Agreement (MOSA), or by adding the licenses to an existing Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA). You need to tell the customer why they should purchase the USLs through the MPSA. What should you tell the customer?
A. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional rights.
B. It is easier to manage software assets if they are acquired through one agreement.
C. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional Software Assurance (SA) benefits.
D. License prices are approximately 50 percent less expensive when acquired through the MPSA.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The new Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is a single agreement for your Online Services, software, and Software Assurance purchases across your organization. It can save time and money by combining purchase points for the best price level and reducing the administrative overhead associated with managing multiple agreements.
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Free Microsoft 70-342 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(7-18)

QUESTION 7
The Montreal data center experiences a power failure. You need to ensure that all the users can access their mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
You need to implement a solution to meet the security requirement for the temporary employees. You deploy an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster, and then you run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for email messages that contain information about the Fabrikam acquisition. Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create an Outlook protection rule.
B. Create a new custom message classification.
C. Modify the registry on all client computers.
D. Modify the Content Filtering settings.
E. Export the Message Classification configuration to an .xml file.
70-342 exam Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: Use the New-MessageClassification cmdlet to create a message classification instance in your organization.
E: After you create a new message classification, you can specify the message classification as a transport rule predicate. Before Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App users can apply the message classification to messages, you must update the end-user systems with the message classification XML file created by the Export-OutlookClassification.ps1 script file. The Export- OutlookClassification.ps1 script file is located in the %ExchangeInstallPath%Scripts directory.
C: Microsoft Office Outlook requires a local file (Classifications.xml) that contains definitions of the message classifications that Microsoft Exchange Server supports before Outlook users can apply message classifications to their messages. You must also create a registry key that enables message classification and references the Classifications.xml file on the Outlook user’s computer.
* From scenario:
Compliance Requirements include:
Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.

QUESTION 10
You need to implement a solution that meets the collaboration requirements. What should you do?
A. Run the Set-CASMailbox cmdlet.
B. Create an organization relationship.
C. Create a new sharing policy.
D. Modify the organization configuration.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Custom recipient MailTips created in the Exchange Server organization of Trey Research must be visible to the users at Fabrikam. The solution must ensure that administrators can define a subset of users who can share their MailTips.
* MailTips Over Organization Relationships
You may want to restrict certain types of MailTips. You can either allow all MailTips to be returned or allow only a limited set that would prevent NDRs. You can configure this setting with the MailTipsAccessLevel parameter on the Set-OrganizationRelationship cmdlet.
Reference: MailTips over organization relationships

QUESTION 11
You need to implement a solution that meets the compliance requirements for the members of the legal department. Which two cmdlets should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. New-RoleAssignmentPolicy
B. Add-ManagementRoleEntry
C. New-ManagementRoleAssignment
D. New-ManagementRole
E. New-ManagementScope
70-342 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Only the users in the legal department must be able to use eDiscovery to view the contents of email messages sent by the finance department users.
/ Users in the legal department use a shared mailbox named Legal. Legal is enabled for In-Place Hold. Legal is the only mailbox on DB2.
We need to assign the role to the legal department users using the New- ManagementRoleAssignment cmdlet. To restrict the eDiscovery access to the finance users emails, we need to create a scope using the New ManagementScope cmdlet.

QUESTION 12
You need to recommend a solution that meets the auditing requirements. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
The following actions must be audited for actions in the Legal mailbox only:
Delegate – Purge mailbox content
Delegate – Transfer file between folders
Administrator – Messages sent by administrator
Administrator – Open any content within the mailbox
* Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
HardDelete: An e-mail is permanently deleted
Move: An e-mail is moved to another folder
MessageBind: An e-mail is opened or viewed in the preview pane
Create: An item (excluding folders) is created in the mailbox (a message is sent, for example)
Reference: Auditing Mailbox Access

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for emailing bank account numbers. Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: All users must be notified before they send an email message that contains any five bank account numbers to an external recipient. The users must be able to override the requirement if they have a valid business reason to send the email message.
Transport rules apply actions to messages, most with corresponding action values. RejectUnlessSilentOverride Message is rejected unless the sender has chosen to override the policy restriction. RejectUnlessExplicitOverride This is the same as RejectUnlessSilentOverride, but the sender can also provide a justification for overriding the policy restriction.
Reference: New-TransportRule

QUESTION 14
You need to identify which technologies must be used to meet the security requirements.
Which technologies should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct requirements. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
You need to recommend a solution that supports the planned changes for the public folders. Which four cmdlets should you recommend running in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps

QUESTION 16
You need to configure the Exchange Server UM dial plan for the planned integration of UM and Lync Server. How should you configure the UM dial plan? (To answer, select the appropriate dial plan type and VoIP security mode in the answer area.)
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: Integrate Unified Messaging (UM) services with the Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
* If you want to integrate Exchange Unified Messaging (UM) with Lync Server 2013, you must perform the following tasks:
/ On the Exchange UM server, create a SIP dial plan based on your organization’s specific
deployment requirements.
/ To encrypt Enterprise Voice traffic, configure the security settings on the Exchange UM SIP dial plan as SIP Secured or Secured.
Note:
* There are three formats or URI types that can be configured on UM dial plans:
/ Telephone Extension (TeleExtn)
/ SIP URI
Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is a standard protocol for initiating interactive user sessions that involve multimedia elements such as video, voice, chat, and gaming. SIP is a request-to-response based protocol that answers requests from clients and responses from servers.
/ E.164
* When you configure the dial plan to use SIP secured mode, only the SIP signaling traffic will be encrypted, and the RTP media channels will still use TCP, which isn’t encrypted. However, when you configure the dial plan to use Secured mode, both the SIP signaling traffic and the RTP media channels are encrypted. An encrypted signaling media channel that uses Secure Realtime Transport Protocol (SRTP) also uses mutual TLS to encrypt the VoIP data. Reference: UM dial plans

QUESTION 17
You are attempting to resolve the email delivery issue for Fabrikam. You need to identify which certificate is being used by the servers in the Exchange Server organization of Fabrikam. In which directory on EX1 should you review the log files? (To answer, select the appropriate directory in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
70-342 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: After a change to a certificate, users report that email messages sent to Fabrikam are not delivered.
* ProtocolLog
Protocol logging records the SMTP conversations that occur between messaging servers as part of message delivery. These SMTP conversations occur on Send connectors and Receive connectors that exist in the Front End Transport service on Client Access servers, the Transport service on Mailbox servers, and the Mailbox Transport service on Mailbox servers. You can use protocol logging to diagnose mail flow problems.

QUESTION 18
You restore the files of DB3 to EX3. You need to mount DB3 on EX3. The solution must ensure that email messages sent to the users of DB3 while the database was offline are delivered once DB3 is mounted. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
Select and Place:
70-342 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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Free Cisco 200-155 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(72-86)

QUESTION 72
A seller’s price is below an appropriate measure of casts. Moreover, the seller has a reasonable prospect of recovering the resulting loss in the future through higher prices or a greater market share. Accordingly, the seller has engaged in:
A. Collusive pricing.
B. Dumping.
C. Predatory pricing.
D. Price discrimination.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is intentionally pricing below cost to eliminate competition and reducesupply. Federal statutes and many state laws prohibit the practice. The U.S.
Supreme Courthas held that pricing is predatory when two conditions are met: 1) the seller’s price is belowan appropriate measure of its costs,” and 2) it has a reasonable prospect of recovering theresulting IOSS through higher prices or greater market share.

QUESTION 73
In which product-mix pricing strategy is it appropriate for the seller to accept any price that exceeds the storage and deliver} casts for the product?
A. By-product pricing.
B. Optional-product pricing.
C. Captive-product pricing.
D. Product-bundle pricing.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A by-product is a product of relatively minor importance generated during the production ofone or more other products. Its production entails no additional costs. Any amount receivedabove the storage and delivery. casts for a by-product allows the seller to reduce the mainproduct’s price to make it more competitive.

QUESTION 74
Several surveys paint out that most managers use full product casts, including unit fixed casts and unit variable costs, in developing cast-based pricing. Which one of the following is least associated with cost-based pricing?
A. Price stability.
B. Price justification.
C. Target pricing.
D. Fixed-cost recovery.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A target price is the expected market price of a product, given the company’s knowledge ofits customers and competitors. Hence, under target pricing, the sales price is known beforethe product is developed. Subtracting the unit target profit margin determines the long-termunit target cast. If cost- cutting measures do not permit the product to be made at or below thetarget cast, it will be abandoned.

QUESTION 75
Fulford Company applies the target pricing and costing approach. The following information about costs and revenues of Fulford’s product are available for the year just ended: Fulford plans to increase unit sales to 80,000 by reducing the product’s unit price to US $320. If Fulford desires a unit target operating income of 12CYo, by what amount must it reduce the full cost per unit?
A. US $32.00
B. US $38.40
C. US $70.40
D. US $80.00
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Unit target operating income is US $38.40 $320 unit target price 12°X0). Hence, the unittarget full cost is US $281.60 $320 – $38.40). The current full cost per unit is US $352.00[($13,200,000 CGS + $7,920,000 other value chain operating costs) – 60,000 units sold], sothe necessary reduction in the full cost per unit is US $70.40 $352.00 – $281.60).

QUESTION 76
A company’s product has an expected 4-year life cycle from research, development, and design through its withdrawal from the market. Budgeted costs are: The company plans to produce 200,000 units and price the product at 125°!a of the wholelife unit cost. Thus, the budgeted unit selling price is:
A. US $15
B. US $31
C. US $36
D. US $45
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whole-life costs include after-purchase costs operating, support, repair, and disposal)incurred by customers as well as life-cycle costs R&D, design, manufacturing, marketing,distribution, and research). Hence, the budgeted unit whole-life cost is US $36 [($2,000,000+ $3,000,000 + $1,200,000 + $1,000,000) – 200,000 units], and the budgeted unit sellingprice is US $45 $36 125CYo).

QUESTION 77
A manufacturing company produces plastic utensils for a particular segment at the lowest possible cost. The company is pursuing a cost:
A. Leadership strategy.
B. Focus strategy.
C. Differentiation strategy.
D. Containment strategy.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost focus strategy aims at cost leadership in a particular segment, such as a regionalmarket or a specialty product line. The rationale for a focus strategy is that the narrowermarket can be better served.

QUESTION 78
The dominant firm in a market pursues a market-leader strategy. This strategy may involve
A. Holding the market stable to avoid attracting new competitors.
B. A flank defense to strengthen the firm’s brand.
C. Sending market signals as a mobile defense.
D. Innovations as an offensive strategy.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Constant innovation to improve products and services, control costs, and increase distributioneffectiveness is the basis for a good offensive strategy. The leader must continuouslyimprove the value offered to customers.

QUESTION 79
During the growth stage of a product’s life cycle,
A. The quality of products is poor.
B. New product models and features are introduced.
C. There is little difference between competing products.
D. The quality of the products becomes more variable and products are less differentiated.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the growth stage, sales and profits increase rapidly, cost per customer decreases, customersare early adopters, new competitors enter an expanding market, new product models andfeatures are introduced, and promotion spending declines or remains stable. The firm entersnew market segments and distribution channels and attempts to build brand loyalty andachieve the maximum share of the market. Thus, prices are set to penetrate the market,distribution channels are extended, and the mass market is targeted through advertising. Thestrategy is to advance by these means and by achieving economies of productive scale.

QUESTION 80
In a product’s life cycle, the first symptom of the decline stage is a decline in the:
A. Firm’s inventory levels.
B. Product’s sales.
C. Product’s production cost.
D. Product’s prices.
200-155 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The sales of most product types and brands eventually decrease permanently. This declinemay be slow or rapid. This first symptom of the decline stage of a product’s life cycle triggerssuch other effects as price cutting, narrowing of the product line, and reduction in promotionbudgets.

QUESTION 81
At the introduction stage of an innovative product, the profit growth is normally slow due to:
A. Expensive sales promotion.
B. High competition.
C. A mass market.
D. Available alternatives.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The introduction stage is characterized by slow sales growth and lack of profits because ofthe high expenses of promotion and selective distribution to generate awareness of theproduct and encourage customers to try it. Thus, the per-customer cost is high. Competitorsare few, basic versions of the product are produced, and higher-income customersinnovators) are usually targeted. Cost-plus prices are charged. They may initially be high topermit cost recovery when unit sales are low. The strategy is to infiltrate the market, plan forfinancing to cope with losses, build supplier relations, increase production and marketingefforts, and plan for competition.

QUESTION 82
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the price charged on a consistent basis for a specific product would probably be lowest during which life cycle stage?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the maturity stage, competition is at its greatest and costs are at their lowest. Moreover, firms are engaged in competitive price-cutting measures, resulting in some of thelowest prices seen during a product’s life cycle.

QUESTION 83
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. Under such a philosophy, the opportunity for cost reductions would be greatest in which stage of the life cycle?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
During the growth stage, the opportunity for cost reductions is at its maximum becauseproduction volume is increasing at a high rate. Thus, fixed costs are being
spread over moreunits of production, and the benefits of the learning curve are being realized.

QUESTION 84
While auditing a marketing department, the internal auditor discovered that the product life cycle model was used to structure the marketing mix. The manager has asked the auditor for advice about increasing advertising of various products. During which stage of the life cycle would it be appropriate to advertise that the company’s product is the lowest price and best quality of all competitors?
A. Introduction stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Maturity stage.
D. Decline stage.
200-155 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The maturity stage is the ideal time for advertising lower prices and superior quality becausethis is the period during a product’s life when competition is greatest. Due to the availabilityof many alternatives or substitutes, a firm has reasons to set itself apart. Because price andquality are both concerns of customers during the maturity stage, it is ideal for the firm todifferentiate its product by advertising low prices and higher quality.

QUESTION 85
A firm buys like-new computer equipment from bankrupt companies and resells it in foreign markets at prices significantly below those charged by competitors. The firm is:
A. Engaged in dumping.
B. Engaged in price discrimination.
C. Operating in a gray market

D. Operating in a black market.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a gray market, products imported from one country to another are sold by persons trying tomake a profit from the difference in retail prices between the two countries. In essence, theseller firm in this case was exploiting a price difference between markets.

QUESTION 86
A firm ships its product to a foreign subsidiary and charges a price that may increase import duties but lower the income taxes paid by the subsidiary. The most likely reason for these effects is that the:
A. Price is an arm’s-length price.
B. Price is a cost-plus price.
C. Transfer price is too low.
D. Transfer price is too high.
200-155 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A transfer price is the price charged by one subunit of a firm to another. When thesubsidiary-buyer is in a foreign country, the higher the transfer, the higher the potentialtariffs. However, the tax levied on a subsequent sale by the subsidiary will be lower becauseof its higher acquisition cost.

200-155 Dumps

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Free Microsoft 70-486 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 7
You need to implement the Views\RunLog\_CalculatePace.cshtml partial view from Views\Runlog \GetLog.cshtml to display the runner’s average mile pace. How should you implement the view? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 8
You need to implement security according to the business requirements. How should you modify RunLogController? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at
all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 9
You need to implement the map of the runners’ paths. How should you build the video viewer? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 10
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 11
You need to ensure that the application uses RunLogRoleProvider custom role provider. How should you modify the web.config file? (To answer, drag the appropriate line of code to the correct location or locations. Each line of code may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 12
You need to ensure that only valid parameters are passed to the EditLog action. How should you build the route? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-486 dumps

70-486 dumps

QUESTION 13
Your company’ has decided to enter the European market with one of its products and is now considering three advertising strategies. This market currently belongs to Company X. Company X is mare that your company is entering the market and is itself considering steps to protect its market. An analyst for your company has identified three strategies Company X might develop and has shown the payoffs for each in the tables below. The analyst has formulated this:
A. Zero-sum game.
B. Cooperative game.
C. Prisoner’s dilemma.
D. Game against nature.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Game theory is a mathematical approach to decision making when confronted with an enemyor competitor. Games are classified according to the number of players and the algebraic sumof the payoffs. In a two-player game, if the payoff is given by the loser to the winner, thealgebraic sum is zero, and the game is a zero-sum game. However, if it is possible for bothplayers to profit, the game is a positive sum game. In this situation, the sum of the payoffsfor each combination of strategies is zero. For example, if X takes no action and 1` chooseslimited advertising. QC’s payoff is -1 and Y’s is 1. A bank plans to open a branch in one offive locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium,or low at each of these locations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presentedin the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 14
If the bank uses the rnaxirna criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select:
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the maximax criterion, the decision maker selects the choice that maximizes themaximum profit. The maximum profits for the five locations are A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demandfor bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of these locations. Profits for eachlocation-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 15
If the bank uses the minimax regret criterion for selecting the location of the branch, it will select.
A. L1.
B. L2.
C. L3.
D. L4.
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Under the minimax regret criterion,the decision maker selects the choice that minimizes themaximum regret (opportunity cost)the maximum regret for each location is determined fromthe opportunity loss matrix.The maximum regret for each location is the highest number ineach column as indicated below. The location with the minimum regret is L2. If demand is low, L2 has a payoff 2, whereas L1 has a payoff of 7. A bank plans to open a branch in one of five locations labeled L1, L2, L3, L4, L5). Demand for bank services may be high, medium, or low at each of theselocations. Profits for each location-demand combination are presented in the payoff matrix.
QUESTION 16
If, in addition to the estimated profits, management of the bank assesses the probabilities of high, medium, and low demands to be 0.3, 0.4, and 0.3 respectively, what is the expected opportunity loss from selecting location of L4?
A. 5.50
B. 7.90
C. 7.50
D. 5.00
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The opportunity loss matrix is as follow:
QUESTION 17
During the past few gears, Wilder Company has experienced the following average number of power outages: Each power outage results in out-of-pocket costs of U $300. For U $1,000 per month, At US $800 can lease generator to provide power during outages. If Wilder leases a generator in the coming year, the estimated savings or additional expense) for the year will be:
A. U $ 15,200)
B. US $ 1,267)
C. U $3,200
D. U $7,200
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Each outage costs US $800, but this experience can be avoided by paying US $1,000 permonth US $12,000 for the year). The expected-value approach uses the probabilitydistribution derived from past experience to determine the average expected outages permonth. The company can expect to have, on average, 1.58334 outages per month. At US $800 peroutage, the expected costs is US $1,266.67. Thus, paying US $1,000 to avoid an expense of US $1,266.67 saves US $266.67 per month, or US $3,200 per year.
QUESTION 18
Philip enterprises, distributor of compact disks(CDS),is developing its budgeted cost of goods sold for 1998.Philip has developed the following range of sales estimates and associated probabilities for the year: Philip’s cost of goods sold averages 80% of sales. t hat is the expected value of Philip’s 1998 budgeted cost of goods sold?
A. US $85,000
B. US $84,000
C. US $68,000
D. US $67,200
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The expected value is calculated by weighting each sales estimate by the probability of itsoccurrence. Consequently, the expected value of sales is US $84,000 [$60,000 .25) +$85,000 .40) + $100,000 .35)]. Cost of goods sold is therefore US $67,200 800/0 $84,000).
QUESTION 19
The expected value of perfect information is the:
A. Same as the expected profit under certainty.
B. Sum of the conditional profit loss) for the best event of each act times the probability ofeach event occurring.
C. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected opportunity loss.
D. Difference between the expected profit under certainty and the expected monetary valueof the best act under uncertainty:

70-486 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Perfect information permits certainty that a future state of nature will occur. The expectedvalue of perfect information determines the maximum amount a decision
maker is willing topay for information. It is the difference between the expected value without perfectinformation, that is,the expected value of the best action under uncertainty and the expectedvalue under certainty. Under certainty, a decision maker knows in each case which state ofnature will occur and can act accordingly.
QUESTION 20
A chief executive officer CEO) believes that a major competitor may be planning a new campaign. The CEO sends a questionnaire to key personnel asking for original thinking concerning what the new campaign may be. The CEO selects the best possibilities then sends another questionnaire asking for the most likely option. The process employed by the CEO is called the
A. Least squares technique.
B. Delphi technique.
C. Maximum likelihood technique.
D. Optimizing of expected payoffs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Delphi technique is a forecasting or decision-making approach that attempts to avoidgroupthink the tendency of individuals to conform to what they perceive to be theconsensus). The technique allows only written, anonymous communication among groupmembers. Each member takes a position on the problem at hand. A summary of thesepositions is communicated to each member. The process is repeated for several iterations asthe members more toward a consensus. Thus, the Delphi technique is a qualitative, notquantitative, technique.The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home footballgames. The pretzels are sold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Anyunsold pretzels are discarded because they will be stale before the next home game. Theestimated demand for pretzel at the next home football game.
QUESTION 21
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using an expected value approach is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The calculation using an expected value approach weights each possible sales volume by itsprobability. Thus, the estimated demand is 4,400 pretzels. The College Honor Society sells hot pretzels at the home football games. The pretzels aresold for US $1.00 each, and the cost per pretzel is U $.30. Any unsold pretzels are discardedbecause they will be stale before the next home game. 95. The estimated demand for pretzelat the next home football game. The frequency distribution of the demand for pretzels pegame is presented as follows.
QUESTION 22
The estimated demand for pretzels at the next home football game using a deterministic approach based on the most likely outcome is:
A. 4,000 pretzels.
B. 4,400 pretzels.
C. 5,000 pretzels.
D. 6,000 pretzels.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A deterministic approach assumes that a value is known with certainty. If that value isdeemed to be the most likely outcome, assumed demand will be 5,000 pretzels, Thevolumewith the highest probability 35%). A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee onany given day. If the stand sells soft drinks and the weather i= hot, it will make US $2,600; ifthe weather is cold, the profit will be US $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather ishot, it will make US $1,900: if the weather is cold, the profit will be US $2,000. Theprobability of cold weather on a given day at this time is 60°l%.

QUESTION 23
The expected payoff if the vendor has perfect information is:
A. US $3,900
B. US $2,200
C. US $1,360
D. US $1,960
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The vendor would like to sell coffee on cold days US $2,000) and soft drinks on hot daysUS $2,500). Hot days are expected 40°l0 of the time. Hence, the probability is 40°f0 ofmaking US $2,500 by selling soft drinks. The chance of making US $2,000 by selling coffeeis 600k. The payoff equation is: 4 US $2,600) + .6 $2,000 = US $2,200 A beverage stand can sell either soft drinks or coffee on any given day. If the stand sells softdrinks and the weather is hot, it will make US $2,500; if the weather is cold, the profit will beU $1,000. If the stand sells coffee and the weather is hot, it will make US $1,900; if theweather is cold, the profit will be U $2,000. The probability of cold weather on a given day atthis time is 60%.

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Free Microsoft 70-483 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
QUESTION 8
An application receives JSON data in the following format:
70-483 dumps
The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to ensure that the ConvertToName() method returns the JSON input string as a Name object. Which code segment should you insert at line 10?
A. Return ser.ConvertToType<Name>(json);
B. Return ser.DeserializeObject(json);
C. Return ser.Deserialize<Name>(json);
D. Return (Name)ser.Serialize(json);
70-483 exam 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize<T> – Converts the specified JSON string to an object of type T.

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
An application serializes and deserializes XML from streams. The XML streams are in the following format:

70-483 dumps
The application reads the XML streams by using a DataContractSerializer object that is declared by the following code segment:
var ser = new DataContractSerializer(typeof(Name));
You need to ensure that the application preserves the element ordering as provided in the XML stream. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate attributes to the correct locations in the answer area-Each attribute may be used
 once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DataContractAttribute – Specifies that the type defines or implements a data contract and is serializable by a serializer, such as the DataContractSerializer. To make their type serializable, type authors must define a data contract for their type. DataMemberAttribute – When applied to the member of a type, specifies that the member is part of a data contract and is serializable by the DataContractSerializer.
QUESTION 10
You are developing an application. The application converts a Location object to a string by using a method named WriteObject. The WriteObject() method accepts two parameters, a Location object and an XmlObjectSerializer object. The application includes the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
You need to serialize the Location object as a JSON object. Which code segment should you insert at line 20?
A. New DataContractSerializer(typeof(Location))
B. New XmlSerializer(typeof(Location))
C. New NetDataContractSenalizer()
D. New DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(Location))
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The DataContractJsonSerializer class serializes objects to the JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) and deserializes JSON data to objects. Use the DataContractJsonSerializer class to serialize instances of a type into a JSON document and to deserialize a JSON document into an instance of a type.
QUESTION 11
An application includes a class named Person. The Person class includes a method named GetData.
You need to ensure that the GetData() from the Person class. Which access modifier should you use for the GetData() method?
A. Internal
B. Protected
C. Private
D. Protected internal
E. Public
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Protected – The type or member can be accessed only by code in the same class or structure, or in a class that is derived from that class.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms173121.aspx
The
protected keyword is a member access modifier. A protected member is accessible within its class and by derived class instances.
QUESTION 12
You are developing an application by using C#. The application includes the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
70-483 dumps
The DoWork() method must not throw any exceptions when converting the obj object to the IDataContainer interface or when accessing the Data property. You need to meet the requirements. Which code segment should you insert at line 07?
A. var dataContainer = (IDataContainer)obj;
B. dynamic dataContainer = obj;
C. var dataContainer = obj is IDataContainer;
D. var dataContainer = obj as IDataContainer;
70-483 pdf
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As – The as operator is like a cast operation. However, if the conversion isn’t possible, as returns null instead of raising an exception.
QUESTION 13
You are creating an application that manages information about zoo animals. The application includes a class named Animal and a method named Save. The Save() method must be strongly typed. It must allow only types inherited from the Animal class that uses a constructor that accepts no parameters. You need to implement the Save() method. Which code segment should you use?
70-483 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you define a generic class, you can apply restrictions to the kinds of types that client code can use for type arguments when it instantiates your class. If client code tries to instantiate your class by using a type that is not allowed by a constraint, the result is a compile-time error. These restrictions are called constraints. Constraints are specified by using the where contextual keyword.
QUESTION 14
DRAG DROP You are developing a class named ExtensionMethods. You need to ensure that the ExtensionMethods class implements the IsEmail() method on string objects. How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-483 dumps
70-483 dumps
QUESTION 15
A post office serves customers in a single line at one service window. During peals periods, the rate of arrivals has a Poisson distribution with an average of 100 customers per hour and service times that are exponentially distributed with an average of 0 seconds per customer. From this, one can conclude that the:
A. Queue will expand to infinity.
B. Server’ will be idle one-sixth of the time.
C. Average rate is 100 customers per hour.
D. Average customer waiting time is minutes.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One hundred customers arrive in line per hour and only 60 are serviced per hour. Accordingly, the queue will expand to infinity during peaty periods.
QUESTION 16
Only two companies manufacture Product A. The finished product is identical regardless of which company manufactures it. The cost to manufacture Product A is US $1, and the selling price is US $2. One company considers reducing the price to achieve 100c’% market share but fears the other company will respond by further reducing the price. Such a scenario would involve a:
A. No-win strategy.
B. Dual-win strategy.
C. One win-one lose strategy.
D. Neutral strategy.
70-483 vce
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If bath firms reduce the selling price of Product A, neither will gain sales and the resultantprice war will cause bath firms to earn lower profits. This outcome is inevitable whenreduced profit margins do not result in a significant increase in sales. The effect is a no-winstrategy. A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itselfand one on an island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determiningthe average waiting times of customers and has developed a model based on randomnumbers. The two key factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the timecustomers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath servicewindows. bath requiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached tothe bank unless that window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone tellerwill always serve the car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at theattached window will be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 17
The arrival time follows which probability distribution?
A. Binomial
B. Chi-Square
C. Poisson
D. Exponential
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Queuing models assume that arrivals follow a Poisson process: the events arrivals) areindependent, any number of events must be possible in the interval of time, the probability{of an event is proportional to the length of the interval, and the probability {of more thanone event is negligible if the interval is sufficiently} small. If is the average number of eventsin a given interval, k is the number of events, and e is the natural logarithm 2.71828…), theprobability of k is. f K) =k e -k ! A bank has two drive-in lanes to serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one onan island. One teller serves bath stations. The bank is interested in determining the averagewaiting times of customers and has developed a model based on random numbers. The twokey factors are the time between successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysis begins with cars just arriving at bath service windows bathrequiring 3 minutes of service time. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unlessthat window has more cars waiting than the island window. The lone teller will always servethe car that arrived first. If two cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached windowwill be served before the one at the island.
QUESTION 18
The time that car 3 will have to wait to be serviced:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
70-483 exam
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 1 is at the attached window and will require minutes to service. Car 2 must wait for car 1to be serviced minutes the queue + minutes to be serviced = 6 minutes). Car arrived atthe attached window minutes after cars 1 and . It must wait 1 minute for car 1 to be servicedand minutes for car to be serviced, a waiting time of 4 minutes. A bank has two drive-in lanesto serve customers: one attached to the bank itself and one on an island. One teller servesbath stations. The bank
is interested in determining the average waiting times of customersand has developed a model based on random numbers. The two key factors are the timebetween successive car arrivals and the time customers wait in line. Assume that the analysisbegins with cars just arriving at bath service windows. bath requiring 3 minutes of servicetime. Car 1 is the attached window attached to the bank unless that window has more carswaiting than the island window. The lone teller will always serve the car that arrived first. Iftwo cars arrive simultaneously, the one at the attached window will be served before the oneat the island.
QUESTION 19
The time that car 4 will have to wait to be:
A. 0-2 minutes.
B. 3 minutes.
C. 4 minutes.
D. 5+ minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Car 4 arrives at the just-vacated island window 4 minutes after car. It must wait 4 minutesfor car to be serviced.
QUESTION 20
The decision rule that selects the strategy with the highest utility payoff if the worst state of nature occurs is the
A. Minimize regret rule.
B. Maximize utility rule.
C. Maximin rule.
D. Maxi max rule.
70-483 dumps
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:
The maximin rule determines the minimum payoff for each decision and then chooses thedecision with the maximum minimum payoff. It is a conservative criterion adopted by riskaverseplayers, that is, those for whom the disutility of a loss exceeds the utility of an equalgain.

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Free Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 
Question: 1
You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson’s Law
D. Lag Time
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 2
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highes impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
Answer: D
Question: 3
Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use?
A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 4
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A
Question: 5
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration.
A. Conformance
Answer: A
300-180 pdf Question: 6
Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B
Question: 7
Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary?
A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 8
Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D
Question: 9
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model.
A. Sensitivity analysis
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 10
Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C
Question: 11
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
A. asset
300-180 dumps 
Answer: A
Question: 12
You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification

Answer: C
Question: 13
An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 14
Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B
Question: 15
You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you’ll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you’ll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
300-180 vce 
Answer: D
Question: 16
Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D
Question: 17
You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and projectoriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and projectoriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
300-180 exam 
Answer: D
Question: 18
Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? “This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.”
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C
Question: 19
Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to docorrectly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 20
Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B
Question: 21
Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
300-180 pdf 
Answer: B
Question: 22
Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C
Question: 23
Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
300-180 vce 
Answer: B
Question: 24
Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D
Question: 25
You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
300-180 exam 
Answer: A
Question: 26
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management’s objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B
Question: 27
You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
300-180 dumps 
Answer: C
Question: 28
Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C
Question: 29
What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
300-180 pdf 
Answer: D
Question: 30
Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Strategic Service Assessment
C. Service Strategy Definition
D. Strategic Planning
Answer: C

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Free ISC CISSP Dumps Exam Questions and Answers: 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilizes public key cryptography.
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
D. It is a second party authentication system.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). Kerberos is a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
The following answers are incorrect:
It utilizes public key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text. Is incorrect because the passwords are not exchanged but used for encryption and decryption of the keys. It is a second party authentication system. Is incorrect because Kerberos is a third party authentication system, you authenticate to the third party (Kerberos) and not the system you are accessing.
References:
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?
A. Audit mechanisms.
B. Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.
C. Authorization.
D. Formal verification of system design.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is a means of being able to track user actions. Through the use of audit logs and other tools the user actions are recorded and can be used at a later date to verify what actions were performed. Accountability is the ability to identify users and to be able to track user actions. The following answers are incorrect: Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria. Is incorrect because the Common Criteria is an international standard to evaluate trust and would not be a factor in System Accountability. Authorization. Is incorrect because Authorization is granting access to subjects, just because you have
authorization does not hold the subject accountable for their actions. Formal verification of system design. Is incorrect because all you have done is to verify the system design
and have not taken any steps toward system accountability.
References:
OIG CBK Glossary (page 778)
QUESTION 5
What is Kerberos?
A. A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.
B. A trusted third-party authentication protocol.
C. A security model.
D. A remote authentication dial in user server.
CISSP dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is correct because that is exactly what Kerberos is.
The following answers are incorrect:
A three-headed dog from Egyptian mythology. Is incorrect because we are dealing with Information Security and not the Egyptian mythology but the Greek Mythology. A security model. Is incorrect because Kerberos is an authentication protocol and not just a security model. A remote authentication dial in user server. Is incorrect because Kerberos is not a remote authentication dial in user server that would be called RADIUS.
QUESTION 6
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
A. Public Key cryptography.
B. Secret Key cryptography.
C. El Gamal cryptography.
D. Blowfish cryptography.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It
  is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be SYMMETRIC (or secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or ASYMMETRIC (aka ‘Public Key’) in which encryption and decryption keys differ. ‘Public Key’ methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric
key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method. For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block
is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one ‘data unit’ (typically 1 byte) at a time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm. Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
QUESTION 7
A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user’s identity is called a:
A. PIN
B. User ID
C. Password
D. Challenge
CISSP pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PIN Stands for Personal Identification Number, as the name states it is a combination of numbers. The following answers are incorrect: User ID This is incorrect because a Userid is not required to be a number and a Userid is only used to establish identity not verify it.
Password. This is incorrect because a password is not required to be a number, it could be any combination of characters. Challenge. This is incorrect because a challenge is not defined as a number, it could be anything.
QUESTION 8
Individual accountability does not include which of the following?
A. unique identifiers
B. policies & procedures
C. access rules

D. audit trails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Accountability would not include policies & procedures because while important on an effective security program they cannot be used in determing accountability.
The following answers are incorrect:
Unique identifiers. Is incorrect because Accountability would include unique identifiers so that you can identify the individual. Access rules. Is incorrect because Accountability would include access rules to define access violations. Audit trails. Is incorrect because Accountability would include audit trails to be able to trace violations or attempted violations.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?
A. Operators are not permitted modify the system time.
B. Programmers are permitted to use the system console.
C. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.
D. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.
CISSP vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is an example of Separation of Duties because operators are prevented from modifying the system time which could lead to fraud. Tasks of this nature should be performed by they system administrators. AIO defines Separation of Duties as a security principle that splits up a critical task among two or more individuals to ensure that one person cannot complete a risky task by himself.
The following answers are incorrect:
Programmers are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because programmers should not be permitted to use the system console, this task should be performed by operators. Allowing programmers access to the system console could allow fraud to occur so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks. Is incorrect because operators should be able to mount tapes and disks so this is not an example of Separation of Duties. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because operators should be able to use the system console so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (page 98 – 101)
AIOv3 Access Control (page 182)
QUESTION 10
An access control policy for a bank teller is an example of the implementation of which of the following?
A. Rule-based policy
B. Identity-based policy
C. User-based policy
D. Role-based policy
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The position of a bank teller is a specific role within the bank, so you would implement a role- based policy.
The following answers are incorrect:
Rule-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on rules and not the role of a of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
Identity-based policy. Is incorrect because this is based on the identity of an individual and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be applicable for a specific role within an organization. User-based policy. Is incorrect because this would be based on the user and not the role of a bank teller so this would not be not be applicable for a specific role within an organization.
QUESTION 11
Which one of the following authentication mechanisms creates a problem for mobile users?
A. Mechanisms based on IP addresses
B. Mechanism with reusable passwords
C. One-time password mechanism.
D. Challenge response mechanism.
CISSP exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Anything based on a fixed IP address would be a problem for mobile users because their location and its associated IP address can change from one time to the next. Many providers will assign a new IP every time the device would be restarted. For example an insurance adjuster using a laptop to file claims online. He goes to a different client each time and the address changes every time he connects to the ISP.
NOTE FROM CLEMENT:
The term MOBILE in this case is synonymous with Road Warriors where a user is constantly traveling and changing location. With smartphone today that may not be an issue but it would be an issue for laptops or WIFI tablets. Within a carrier network the IP will tend to be the same and would change rarely. So this question is more applicable to devices that are not cellular devices but in some cases this issue could affect cellular devices as well.
The following answers are incorrect:
Mechanism with reusable password. This is incorrect because reusable password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. They are the least secure and change only at specific interval one-time password mechanism. This is incorrect because a one-time password mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users. Many are based on a clock and not on the IP address of the user Challenge response mechanism. This is incorrect because challenge response mechanism would not present a problem for mobile users.
QUESTION 12
Organizations should consider which of the following first before allowing external access to their LANs via the Internet?
A. Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms.
B. Plan for protecting the modem pool.
C. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information.
D. Plan for considering proper authentication options.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Before a LAN is connected to the Internet, you need to determine what the access controls mechanisms are to be used, this would include how you are going to authenticate individuals that may access your network externally through access control.
The following answers are incorrect:
Plan for implementing workstation locking mechanisms. This is incorrect because locking the workstations have no impact on the LAN or Internet access. Plan for protecting the modem pool. This is incorrect because protecting the modem pool has no impact on
the LAN or Internet access, it just protects the modem. Plan for providing the user with his account usage information. This is incorrect because the question asks what should be done first. While important your primary concern should be focused on security.

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