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Oracle 1Z0-074 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Examine these statements:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q1

Which statement is true?
A. Statements 2 and 3 will validate the conversion
B. Only statement 3 will validate the conversion
C. Only statement 1 will validate the conversion
D. Statement 1 will return an error
E. All the statements will validate the conversion
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
The ORCL CDB has a PDB, ORCL_PDB. Examine these parameters in ORCL:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2

Examine these parameters in ORCL_PDB:

pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2-1

You switch to ORCL_PDB and plan to execute these commands:

pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q2-2

What will be the outcome?
A. SGA_TARGET is set to 600M. The other values remain unchanged in both ORCL and ORCL_PDB.
B. SGA_TARGET is set to 600M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL_PDB. The other values remain unchanged in
both ORCL and ORCL_PDB.
C. SGA_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE are set to 600M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL_PDB.
SGA_TARGET and SGA_MAX_SIZE are set to (1360-600)M and DB_CACHE_SIZE to 200M in ORCL.
D. Altering the DB_CACHE_SIZE results in an error because SGA_TARGET should be altered to 600M first.
E. Altering the DB_CACHE_SIZE results in an error because it cannot be altered in a PDB. SGA_TARGET size is
changed to 600 M.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true about a PDB lockdown profile? (Choose two.)
A. It is created by a local user with the SYSDBA privilege in each PDB where it needs to be applied.
B. It is created by a common user with the SYSDBA privilege in CDB$ROOT.
C. It is created by a common user with the SYSDBA privilege in each PDB where it needs to be applied.
D. It is enabled by default on creation.
E. It is enabled by using the PDB_LOCKDOWN parameter in each PDBs where it needs to be applied.
F. It is enabled in PDBs only after the CDB to which the PDBs belong is restarted.
Correct Answer: BC
Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/multitenant/a-simple-guide-to-lockdown-profiles


QUESTION 4
USER1 is an OS user with the password oracle and is only a member of the oinstall group.
In the ORCL database, the OS_AUTHEN_PREFIX value is ops$.
Examine these commands executed by the DBA:
SQL> CREATE USER ops$user1 IDENTIFIED externally;
SQL> GRANT create session TO ops$user1;
How can USER1 be given the SYSRAC privilege?
A. Make User1 a member of the OSDBA group in Linux or the ORA_%HOMENAME%_SYSDBA group in Windows
only.
B. Grant SYSRAC to user1.
C. Grant SYSRAC to ops$user1.
D. Make USER1 a member of the OSRACDBA group in Linux or the ORA_%HOMENAME%_SYSRAC group in
Windows.
E. Grant SYSDBA to ops$user1
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Your CDB is in ARCHIVELOG mode and has an application container with a container PDB. A backup exists for the
CDB. When you connect to the container PDB and try to execute a query, you get an error that a SYSTEM data file is
missing in the container PDB. You want to use the RMAN RESTORE DATABASE and RECOVER DATABASE
commands to perform the recovery.
Examine these actions:
Connect to CDB$ROOT and execute SHUTDOWN ABORT and STARTUP MOUNT.
Connect to the application container and execute SHUTDOWN ABORT.
Connect to the application container and execute ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE CLOSE ABORT.
Which option correctly lists the actions that you must execute before performing the recovery?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. only 2
D. only 3
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
In your database, DEFERRED_SEGMENT_CREATION is set to TRUE. You successfully execute this command:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q6

Which statement is true about the space allocated to the SALES_2016 table?
A. Two subpartitions are allocated to the q1_2016 partition when the first row is inserted into q1_2016.
B. A single subpartition is allocated to the q1_2016 partition when the first row is inserted into q1_2016.
C. Separate segments are allocated to the q1_2016 partition and each of its subpartitions when the first row is inserted
into q1_2016.
D. A segment is allocated to the q1_2016 partition but not its subpartitions at table creation.
E. A single segment is allocated to the q1_2016 partition and its subpartitions at table creation.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
The TESTDB container database (CDB) running in ARCHIVELOG mode contains two pluggable databases (PDBs)
PDB1 and PDB2. A connect descriptor for TESTDB is mapped to the TNS alias testdb in tnsnames.ora.
The default RMAN configuration is used.
Examine these commands:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q7

Which files are backed up?
A. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, and FLASHBACKLOGS
B. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, and ARCHIVELOGS
C. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE and SPFILE
D. all root and PDB1 data files, and the CONTROLFILE, SPFILE, ONLINE REDO LOG FILES, and ARCHIVELOGS
E. all root and PDB1 data files
Correct Answer: E
Reference: https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/multitenant-rman-backup-recovery-cdb-and-pdb-12cr1

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about Trace File Analyzer (TFA) Collector?
A. TFA collects diagnostic data only for Oracle 12c Release 2 databases or later versions.
B. If TFA is installed on any cluster node, it automatically collects diagnostic data on all other cluster nodes.
C. It can be used to collect diagnostic data for predefined events, and can be configured to automatically collect data for
other events.
D. In Oracle 12c Release 2, TFA installation can be done only while executing root.sh.
E. It is used to collect diagnostic data only for ORA-600, ORA-7445, and ORA-4031 events.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
In TESTDB, U1 has SYSDBA privileges and the password Oracle_4U.
You recreate the password file:
$ orapwd FILE=orapwtestdb FORMAT=12.2 password=Oracle_123 ENTRIES=5
Examine the command and result:
$ sqlplus u1/[email protected] as sysdba
ERROR:
ORA-01017: invalid username/password; logon denied
What can you do to fix this error?
A. Recreate the password file with the password set to Oracle_4U.
B. Change the password of U1 to Oracle_123.
C. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE parameter value to NONE.
D. Regrant SYSDBA to U1.
E. Restart the database instance.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:670117794561

 

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about the In-Memory (IM) column store? (Choose two.)
A. It may be used for columns in Index Organized Tables (IOTs)
B. It may be used for columns in clustered tables
C. IM area size is not controlled by Oracle Automatic Memory Management
D. IM area size can be set at the CDB and PDB levels
E. IM area size can be increased or decreased dynamically
F. It is not used for partitioned tables
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true about the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR)?
A. Space used by the ADR can be limited to a user-specified value.
B. Space used by the ADR is limited based only on the retention period.
C. The retention period for the ADR is set based on the space limit specified.
D. When the ADR reaches the space limit, it deletes incident dumps and metadata before deleting old core dumps.
E. Manual purging of all types of ADR files is allowed.
Correct Answer: E

 

QUESTION 12
In which two situations does the INHERIT ANY PRIVILIGES privilege regulate the privileges used?
A. when a user creates a new user
B. when a user performs a GRANT or REVOKE operation
C. when a user queries a BEQUEATH CURRENT_USER view that references an invoker\\’s right procedure
D. when a user runs a procedure created with invoker\\’s right
E. when a user runs a procedure created with definer\\’s right
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/dr_ir.htm#DBSEG661

 

QUESTION 13
You create a new application container, SALES_APP, with application PDBs, SALES1_PDB, and SALES2_PDB. You
want to install the NEW_APP application in SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB by using:pass4itsure 1z0-074 exam question q13

Where should you execute these statements?
A. All the statements should be executed in the application root.
B. All the statements should be executed in the application seed.
C. All the statements should be executed in the SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB application containers.
D. BEGIN/END INSTALL statements should be executed in the application root and the SYNC statement in
SALES1_PDB and SALES2_PDB.
E. BEGIN/END INSTALL statements should be executed in the CDB root and the SYNC statement in the application
root.
Correct Answer: AD

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Oracle Database 1Z0-060 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You must configure Oracle Data Redaction for the EMP table to satisfy the following requirements:
RANDOM redaction on the SAL and COMM columns PARTIAL redaction on the HIREDATE column FULL redaction on
the MGR column
What would you define to implement this?
A. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy for each data type defined for the table that must be redacted
B. several redaction policies, with each redaction policy specifying the redaction for table columns of that redaction type
C. one redaction policy on the table, which specifies the redaction types for all table columns that must be redacted
D. several redaction policies, with one redaction policy for each table column that must be redacted
Correct Answer: C
You can redact columns of different data types, using different redaction types, for one table or view.

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files?
A. The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
B. Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C. An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D. Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E. Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.
Correct Answer: AC
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory requirements for very large
databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open operations.
C: You don\\’t have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the appropriate extent size.
Note:
*
The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that are stored on individual
disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk. Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU).
To accommodate increasingly larger files, ASM uses variable size extents.
*
The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending on the file size. The
initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds.
This feature is automatic for newly created and resized datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to
Oracle Release 11 or higher.

 

QUESTION 3
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and PDB3. Which two
RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?
A. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
B. BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D. BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E. BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2
Correct Answer: AC
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to the PDB.
*
(A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN commands. For
example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
*
(C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would use when connecting to a
non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP DATABASE command. Reference: Oracle
Database Backup and Recovery User\\’s Guide 12c, About Backup and Recovery of CDBs

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to migrate your database from a file system to Automatic Storage Management (ASM) on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. RMAN CONVERT command
B. Data Pump Export and Import
C. Conventional Export and Import
D. The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE … command of RMAN
E. DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
Correct Answer: AD
A:
1. Get the list of all datafiles. Note: RMAN Backup of ASM Storage There is often a need to move the files from the file
system to the ASM storage and vice versa. This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some
means and then the file may need to be moved to the other file
system.
D: Migrating a Database into ASM
*
To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must migrate that database into
ASM. This migration is performed using Recovery Manager (RMAN) even if you are not using RMAN for your primary
backup and recovery strategy.
*
Example:
Back up your database files as copies to the ASM disk group.
BACKUP AS COPY INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 DATABASE
FORMAT \\’+DISK\\’ TAG \\’ORA_ASM_MIGRATION\\’;

 

QUESTION 5
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB that has been opened
in read only mode?
A. You can conned as a common user by using the connect statement.
B. You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C. You can connect by using easy connect.
D. You can connect by using OS authentication.
E. You can connect by using a Net Service name.
F. You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
Correct Answer: CDEF
*
The choice of threading model is dictated by the THREADED_EXECUTION initialization parameter.
THREADED_EXECUTION=FALSE : The default value causes Oracle to run using the multiprocess model.
THREADED_EXECUTION=TRUE : Oracle runs with the multithreaded model.
*
OS Authentication is not supported with the multithreaded model.
*
THREADED_EXECUTION
When this initialization parameter is set to TRUE, which enables the multithreaded Oracle model, operating system
authentication is not supported. Attempts to connect to the database using operating system authentication (for
example,
CONNECT / AS SYSDBA or CONNECT / ) when this initialization parameter is set to TRUE receive an
ORA-01031″insufficient privileges” error.
F: The new SET CONTAINER statement within a call back function:
The advantage of SET CONTAINER is that the pool does not have to create a new connection to a PDB, if there is an
exisitng connection to a different PDB. The pool can use the existing connection, and through SET CONTAINER, can
connect to the desired PDB. This can be done using:
ALTER SESSION SET CONTAINER=
This avoids the need to create a new connection from scratch.

 

QUESTION 6
Which two are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database 12c when it is
enabled? (Choose two.)
A. reduced CPU utilization
B. reduced physical I/O
C. improved Serial Execution performance
D. reduced logical I/O
E. reduced virtual memory utilization
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 7
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the
following command:
lsnrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the listener will be that no
new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are not compromised.

 

QUESTION 8
You enabled an audit policy by issuing the following statements:
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SCOTT;
SQL> AUDIT POLICY ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER BY SYS, SYSTEM;
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.
A. SYS, SYSTEM
B. SCOTT
C. Only for successful executions
D. Only for failed executions
E. Both successful and failed executions
Correct Answer: AE
* The ORA_DATABASE_PARAMETER policy audits commonly used Oracle Database parameter settings. By default,
this policy is not enabled.

 

QUESTION 9
Examine these two statements:pass4itsure 1z0-060 exam question q9

Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)
A. The MRKT tablespace is created as a smallfile tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required
for bigfile files.
B. The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C. Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT
tablespace.
D. No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E. The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT
tablespace.
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 10
Which three statements are true about the use of the query result cache? (Choose three.)
A. Results obtained from a query rewrite to a materialized view may be stored in the query result cache.
B. Stale results may still be obtained from the query result cache, if the query session\\’s query_rewrite_integrity
parameter is set to stale_tolerated.
C. Results obtained from a join between a table and a view may be stored in the query result cache.
D. Results from distributed queries are never stored in the query result cache.
E. Results may not be obtained from the query result cache, when the query_rewrite_enabled parameter is set to false.
F. Results from remote queries may sometimes be stored in the query result cache.
Correct Answer: ABE


QUESTION 11
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:pass4itsure 1z0-060 exam question q11

You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing one million rows. What
could be a reason for this recommendation?
A. The keep pool is not configured.
B. Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C. Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D. The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E. All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.
Correct Answer: D
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS)? (Choose two.)
A. Direct NFS can use only the oranfstab configuration file located in $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/.
B. It utilizes the operating system file system cache.
C. Oracle Database requires mount points to be mounted by the kernel NFS system even when served through the
Direct NFS client.
D. The Oracle database files available on the NFS server that are served by the Direct NFS Client cannot be accessed
through the operating system kernel NFS.
E. Direct NFS performs load balancing across all specified paths. If a specified path fails, Direct NFS reissues I/O
commands over any remaining paths.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 13
You executed this command to create a password file: $ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 10 ignorecase = N Which two
statements are true about the password file?
A. It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the SYSOPER role.
B. It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER operating system group.
C. It contains usernames and passwords of database users who are members of the OSDBA operating system group.
D. It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA role.
E. It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted the SYSDBA role.
Correct Answer: AD
*
You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
*
Adding Users to a Password File When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user\\’s name and
privilege information are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password file (that is, if
the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or SHARED, or the password file is missing),
Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant these privileges.
A user\\’s name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two privileges. If you
revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the password file.
*
The syntax of the ORAPWD command is as follows:
ORAPWD FILE=filename [ENTRIES=numusers] [FORCE={Y|N}] [IGNORECASE={Y|N}] [NOSYSDBA={Y|N}]
*
IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when comparing the password that
the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.

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Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Maintain a Configuration Manager Management Infrastructure (35-40%)
  • Manage Inventory by Using Configuration Manager (10-15%)
  • Manage Applications by Using Configuration Manager (15-20%)
  • Deploy and Maintain Operating Systems by using Configuration Manager (20-25%)
  • Extend the Management Scope of Configuration Manager (10-15%)

Microsoft MCSE 70-703 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You need to configure the Configuration Manager clients to meet the following requirements:
Manage Microsoft Office 365 updates.
Configure the times at which updates can be applied.
Allow unsigned Windows PowerShell scripts to be executed.
What should you use to meet each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate settings to the correct requirements.
Each setting may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The branch office connects to the main office by using a VPN over
DSL connection.
The branch office contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8.1. All the computers are on the same subnet.
You plan to upgrade the operating system on the computers by using Configuration Manager. During the upgrade
process, you will maintain the user state and the files.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of WAN traffic during the operating system deployments.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a cloud management gateway
B. a distribution point
C. a service connection point
D. a cloud-based distribution point
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/servers/deploy/configure/deploy-and-manage-content#bkmk_distribute

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: From each client, you run CMEnroll.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains client computers that are managed by using
System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch). The computers are configured as shown in the following table.

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q4

You need to ensure that you can run a virtual application on all the computers. What should you do?
A. Deploy a provisioning package that upgrades all the computers that run Windows 10 Pro to Windows 10 Enterprise.
B. Deploy a certificate profile.
C. Enable hardware virtualization support for all the computers.
D. From Application Management, create Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) virtual environment.
E. Deploy the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client to all the computers.
F. From a Group Policy object (GPO), enable Microsoft User Experience Virtualization (UE-V)
G. Deploy a Windows 10 Edition Upgrade policy
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/apps/get-started/deploying-app-v-virtual-applications

QUESTION 5
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You plan to configure content management by creating distribution points and distribution point groups.
Which type of object can you associate to the distribution points and the distribution point groups? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q5-1

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You deploy the client by using a Group Policy software installation.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You deploy the first primary site server to your organization. Discovery is not configured.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to five client computers in a workgroup.
Solution: You manually install the client on the computers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers

QUESTION 8
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You add the cloud management gateway connector point to the deployment.
Which site system role can be configured to receive the traffic from the cloud management gateway?
A. Service connection point
B. Software update point
C. Asset Intelligence synchronization point
D. Endpoint Protection point
E. Distribution point
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.systemcenterdudes.com/how-to-setup-an-sccm-cloud-management-gateway/

QUESTION 9
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus is deployed to all client computers.
You need to ensure that all updates for Office 365 are deployed from Configuration Manager by using the least amount
of administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create an automatic deployment rule (ADR)
B. Add a product to the software update point
C. Create a configuration baseline
D. Create an application
E. Update the Client Settings
F. Create a task sequence
Correct Answer: ABE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/automatically-deploy-software-updates

QUESTION 10
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
The main office has a software update point. Currently, all client computers receive Microsoft updates from the main
office.
You need to ensure that the computers in the branch office receive updates from a local server. The solution must meet
the following requirements:
Ensure that the updates are managed by using Configuration Manager.
Ensure that the computers in the branch office scan for updates against a local catalog.
What should you deploy to the branch office?
A. a software update point, a service connection point, and an Application Catalog website point
B. a software update point, a distribution point, and a reporting services point
C. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), a service connection point, and a management point
D. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS), a software update point, and a distribution point
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/get-started/manage-settings-for-software-updates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/sum/deploy-use/download-software-updates

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You plan to deploy System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) by using an initial pilot deployment.
The pilot deployment will contain five computers that run Windows 10.
You need to deploy the Configuration Manager client to the five computers only.
Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that contains a WMI filter for the five computers. To the GPO, you add
a startup script that runs ccmsetup.exe.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Ccmsetup.exe is used to deploy the Configuration Manager client but WMI filtering is based on device types. We should
use security filtering instead.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/clients/deploy/deploy-clients-to-windows-computers
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/grouppolicy/2009/07/30/security-filtering-wmi-filtering-and-item-level-targeting-in-group-policy-preferences/

QUESTION 12
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure hybrid mobile device management (MDM).
You run WINVER on client computer named Computer1 as shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure 70-703 exam question q12

You need to create a compliance policy that has a condition specifying a minimum version of the operating system. The
condition must use the same operating system version as Computer1. Which version should you specify in the
condition?
A. 10.0.16299.15
B. 10.0.1709
C. 10.1709
D. 10.1709.16299.15
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/intune/compliance-policy-create-windows

QUESTION 13
You have a deployment of System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure reporting in Configuration Manager and verify that users can view reports.
You need to ensure that the users can subscribe to the reports and that the reports are delivered by using email.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory Users and Computers, configure the email address of the users.
B. In Configuration Manager, configure the Report Options.
C. In Reporting Services Configuration Manager, configure the E-mail Settings.
D. In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, configure Database Mail.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/SCCMdocs/blob/master/sccm/core/servers/manage/operations-and-maintenance-for-reporting.md https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/previous-versions/sql/sql-server-2008/ms159155(v=sql.100)

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and applications across medium, large, and enterprise organizations.
Candidates for this exam should have at least one or two years of experience managing and deploying PCs, devices, and applications by using System Center Configuration Manager and Microsoft Intune. Candidates should have a strong understanding of networking, Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), Windows operating systems, and mobile device platforms.
Candidates should also understand public key infrastructure (PKI) security, Windows PowerShell, and Windows Server roles and services”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!

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300-175 DCUCI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcuci.html

The latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Which option does UEFI secure boot provide?
A. checksum verification of the EFI shell
B. certificate verification of the EFI shell
C. checksum verification of the OS
D. certificate verification of the OS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which FEX connection mode do you use to pin the server-facing FEX ports to the connected uplink ports when the FEX
is discovered?
A. port channel
B. soft pinning
C. hard pinning
D. vPC
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile
management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco
Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1-2-1/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Server
s_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guide_1_ 2_1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guide_1_ 2_ 1_chapter9.html

 

QUESTION 5
Which two of the listed BIOS options are required for VM-FEX in high performance mode? (Choose two.)
A. RSS
B. interrupt coherency
C. virtualization technology
D. cache validation
E. ATS support
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 6
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/blade-servers/install/B200.html

 

QUESTION 7
You must implement a Dynamic FCoE topology that uses ECMP. Which ancillary technology do you use?
A. OTV
B. VXLAN
C. FabricPath
D. EIGRP
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the maximum ports that are filed in the port profile?
A. determines the maximum number of uplinks that VMs can use
B. determines the maximum number of VMs that can use the DVS
C. determines the maximum number of DVSs that can use the port profile
D. determines the maximum number of dynamic vNICS on the DVS
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which two are true concerning authorization within a Cisco Unified Computing System? (Choose two.)
A. A role defines a collection of privileges that determines which actions a user can take in Cisco Unified Computing
System Manager.
B. Authorization consists of three components (roles, password policy, and locales) that are based on which features
and resources the user will not have access to.
C. Customized roles can be configured on and downloaded from remote AAA servers.
D. The logical resources, pools and policies, are grouped into roles.
E. If the service profile cannot find available resources, it will search in the parent organization for pools and resources.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration?

pass4itsure 300-175 exam question q10

A. Creates an interface for FcoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FcoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FcoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and Commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transactions.
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2-1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110.html

 

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of FCoE topology is displayed?pass4itsure 300-175 exam question q11

A. direct-attach
B. remote-attach
C. vPC
D. FCoE with Cisco 2232 Fabric Extenders
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/white_paper_c11-560403.html

 

QUESTION 12
In an environment where multiple LDAP servers are used for user authentication, which Cisco UCS Manager feature
must be configured?
A. LDAP Locale
B. Organization
C. LDAP Provider Group
D. Authentication Domain
Correct Answer: C
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/sample_configurations/UCSM_1_4_LDAP_with_AD/b
_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD/b_Sample_Configuration_LDAP_with_AD_chapter_010.html https://www.cisco
.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User-Guides/Admin-
Management/3-1/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/
b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_0100.html#task_4331F325E9F249C5BEBD25E0C465309C
For implementations involving multiple LDAP databases, configure an LDAP provider group.

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true regarding backup operations in Cisco UCS Manager?
A. A user can perform incremental backups of a system configuration
B. Passwords and other sensitive information are encrypted in full state backups
C. Scheduled backups are not available
D. Each backup destination can have multiple backup operations
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following early examples of cloud computing was used for software engineering purposes in the form of

web-based applications and required interoperability between different systems? 

A. Distributed Computing 

B. Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) 

C. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) 

D. Desktop Virtualization 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a benefit of implementing cloud computing via the ITIL guideline? 

A. Increased costs 

B. Larger knowledge base 

C. Increased free hard drive space 

D. Improved service level 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 3

Which of the following is the BEST environment in which to deploy into cloud? 

A. Production 

B. Development 

C. Quality Assurance 

D. Staging 

Correct Answer: D 

“Staging is where you deploy code before you deploy to production.” 

Reference: https://increment.com/development/center-stage-best-practices-for-staging-environments/ 

 

QUESTION 4

Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that

information by any party. 

A. companies, others 

B. companies, themselves 

C. individuals, others 

D. individuals, themselves 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 5

A company uses an IaaS cloud deployment model with a third-party vendor. Which of the following does the company

fully control? (Choose two.) 

A. Operating systems 

B. Physical servers 

C. Service availability 

D. Physical security 

E. Storage 

Correct Answer: AE 

 

QUESTION 6

Elastic computing is important to businesses as it relates to which of the following cloud characteristics? 

A. Scalability 

B. Security 

C. Integrity 

D. Distribution 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

In which of the following scenarios is cloud computing the LEAST advantages? 

A. An organization needs access to applications for a short period of time 

B. An organization needs access to physically secure highly sensitive data 

C. An organization needs to synchronize calendar functions on a rightly basis 

D. An organization deals with non-mission-critical applications 

Correct Answer: B 

Reference: https://www.levelcloud.net/why-levelcloud/cloud-education-center/advantages-and-disadvantages-of-cloud-computing/ 

 

QUESTION 8

A company recently implemented a cloud infrastructure. Now their customers are receiving unsolicited advertisements

form third-party vendors. Which of the following did the company neglect to consider before implementing the cloud? 

A. Privacy risks 

B. Local compliance policies 

C. Cost of the implementation 

D. Legal standards 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

A company decides to reduce its IT labor force by hiring an external company to manage various aspects of IT

administration, such as software patch management, desktop virtualization, and remote network maintenance. The

company will still retain technicians for maintenance and storage administration. Which of the following services has this

company implemented? 

A. Outsourcing 

B. Virtualization 

C. PaaS 

D. IaaS 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following is an important factor for maintaining strategic flexibility? 

A. Return on investment 

B. Integrity 

C. Elasticity 

D. Vendor lock-in 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 11

How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy? 

A. Open up internal databases with Web service access. 

B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers 

C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines. 

D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

A company wants to implement an internal virtualized infrastructure to provide its employees with on demand storage

which will be accessible through a web interface over the public Internet. This is an example of which of the following? 

A. Public cloud 

B. Community cloud 

C. Hybrid cloud 

D. Private cloud 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following factors of service must be managed effectively by a SaaS provider in a cloud computing

environment? 

A. Application access levels 

B. Client background checks 

C. Availability 

D. User acceptance 

Correct Answer: C

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Candidates for this exam perform tasks related to the networking features and functionalities available in Windows Server 2016. Candidates should have familiarity with implementing and managing DNS, DHCP, and IPAM, as well as deploying remote access solutions such as VPN and RADIUS.

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Implement Domain Name System (DNS) (15-20%)

  • Install and configure DNS servers
  • Create and configure DNS zones and records

Implement DHCP and IPAM (25-30%)

  • Install and configure DHCP
  • Manage and maintain DHCP
  • Implement and Maintain IP Address Management (IPAM)

Implement Network Connectivity and Remote Access Solutions (20-25%)

  • Implement network connectivity solutions
  • Implement a virtual private network (VPN) and DirectAccess solutions
  • Implement Network Policy Server (NPS)

Implement Core and Distributed Network Solutions (15-20%)

  • Implement IPv4 and IPv6 addressing
  • Implement Distributed File System (DFS) and Branch Office solutions

Implement an Advanced Network Infrastructure (15-20%)

  • Implement high performance network solutions
  • Determine scenarios and requirements for implementing Software Defined Networking (SDN)

Latest effective Microsoft MCSA 70-741 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and is configured as a domain controller.
You install the DNS Server server role on Server1.
You plan to store a DNS zone in a custom Active Directory partition.
You need to create a new Active Directory partition for the zone.
What should you use?
A. Set-DnsServer
B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. Dns.exe
D. Dnscmd.exe
Correct Answer: D
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649181(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Refer to exhibit:pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q2

Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM that run Windows Server 2016. VM1 connects to Private1. VM2
has two network adapters.
You need to ensure that VM1 connects to the corporate network by using NAT.
Solution: You connect VM1 to Inernal1. You run the New-NetNatIpAddress and the New-NetNat cmdlets on Server1.
You configure VM1 to use Server1 as the default gateway.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You have a DirectAccess Server that is accessible by using the name directaccess.fabrikam.com On the DirectAccess
server, you install a new server certificate that has a subject name of directaccess.contoso.com, and then you configure
DNS records for directaccess.contoso.com You need to change the endpoint name for DirectAccess to
directaccess.contoso.com What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area.
Hot Area:pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q3-1

 

 

QUESTION 4
Your company has a main office in London and a branch office in Seattle. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
In the London office, you have a Distributed File System (DFS) server named FS1 that contains a folder named
Folder1.
In the Seattle office, you have a DFS server named FS2.
All servers run Windows Server 2016.
You configure replication of Folder1 to FS2.
Users in both offices frequently add files in Folder1.
You monitor DFS Replication, and you discover excessive replication over the WAN link during business hours.
You need to reduce the amount of bandwidth used for replication during business hours. The solution must ensure that
the users can continue to save content to Folder1.
What should you do?
A. Modify the quota settings on Folder1 on FS2.
B. Modify the properties of the replication group.
C. Configure the copy of Folder1 on FS2 as read-only.
D. Modify the replicated folder properties of Folder1 on FS1.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the DNS Server role installed. Automatic scavenging of state records
is
enabled and the scavenging period is set to 10 days.
All client computers dynamically register their names in the contoso.com DNS zone on Server1.
You discover that the names of multiple client computers that were removed from the network several weeks ago can
still be resolved.
You need to configure Server1 to automatically remove the records of the client computers that have been offline for
more than 10 days.
Solution: You set the Expires after the value of the zone.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc772069(v=ws.11).aspx

 

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solutions,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is configured as a VPN server.
Server1 is configured to allow domain users to establish VPN connections from 06:00 to 18:00 every day of the week.
You need to ensure that domain users can establish VPN connections only between Monday and Friday.
Solution: From Routing and Remote Access, You configure the Properties of Server1.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are a network administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The network is configured as shown in the exhibit.pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q7

You install the Remote Access server role on Server2. Server2 has the following configured:
Network address translation (NAT)
The DHCP Server server role
The Security Policy of Contoso states that only TCP ports 80 and 443 are allowed from the internet to Server2.
You identify the following requirements:
Add 28 devices to subnet2 for a temporary project.
Configure Server2 to accept VPN connections from the internet.
Ensure that devices on Subnet2 obtain TCP/IP settings from DHCP on Server2.
You deploy a computer named ComputerA to Subnet1. the computer has an IP address of 10.10.0.129 and a subnet
mask of 255.255.255.0.
You plan to use ComputerA to access the resources on Web1.
Which IP address should you use as the default gateway on ComputerA?
A. 10.10.1.1
B. 10.10.0.224
C. 131.107.0.223
D. 172.16.128.193
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Refer to exhibit:pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q8

Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM that run Windows Server 2016. VM1 connects to Private1. VM2
has two network adapters.
You need to ensure that VM1 connects to the corporate network by using NAT.
Solution: You connect VM2 to Private1 and External1. You install the Remote Access server on VM2, and you configure
NAT in the Routing and Remote Access console. You configure VM1 and VM2 as the default gateway.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a domain controller named DC1.
All DNS servers for the network run BIND 10.
Your perimeter network contains a DHCP server named DHCP1 that runs Windows Server 2016. DHCP1 is a member
of a workgroup named WORKGROUP. DHCP1 provides IP address leases to guests accessing the Wi-Fi network.
Several engineers access the network remotely by using a VPN connection to a remote access server that runs
Windows Server 2016. All of the VPN connections use certificate-based authentication and are subject to access
policies in
Network Policy Server (NPS). Certificates are issued by an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1.
All Windows computers on the network are activated by using the Key Management Service (KMS). On-premises users use
Remote Desktop Services (RDS). You plan to deploy IP Address Management (IPAM) to the network. Which action can
you perform on the network by using IPAM?
A. Manage the DNS zones on the DNS servers.
B. Audit logon events on the RDS server.
C. Audit authentication events from DC1.
D. Manage activations on the KMS server.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You have a DNS server named Server1.
The forwarders are configured as shown in the Forwarders exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10

The Advanced Settings are configured as shown in the Advanced exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10-1

The Root Hints are configured as shown in the Root Hints exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Server1 does not contain any DNS zones.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10-2

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q10-3

Recursion is disabled so internet hosts cannot be resolved.
The recursive test fails because recursion is disabled.
Server1 is not configured as a root server. The forwarders list would be greyed out if it was.

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
Refer to exhibit:pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q11

Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM that run Windows Server 2016. VM1 connects to Private VM2
has two network adapters.
You need to ensure that VM1 connects to the corporate network by using NAT.
Solution: You connect VM1 to Internal1. You run the New-NetNatIpAddress and the New-NetNat cmdlets on Server1.
You configure VM1 to use VM2 as the default gateway.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual
machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and
vSwitch3.
You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)pass4itsure 70-741 exam question q12

You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1. What
should you do?
A. From Windows PowerShell on VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterTeamMapping cmdlet.
B. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run Set-VM network adapter cmdlet.
C. From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfiguration cmdlet.
D. From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team.
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.techsupportpk.com/2017/01/nic-teaming-in-hyper-v-on-windows-server-2016.html

 

QUESTION 13
You need to implement network virtualization.
On which object should you configure the virtual subnet ID?
A. Virtual switch
B. Hyper-V server
C. VM
D. Virtual network adapter
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A system administrator checks the endpoint database and discovers MAC addresses that belong to inactive local nodes. Which description of the retention of the MAC addresses for the local nodes is true?
A. After five minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
B. The local database is cleared only when the leaf reboots
C. The leaf sends three ARP requests after an aging period. The MAC addresses are stored to the local endpoint database aft long as the devices respond to the requests
D. After 15 minutes, the inactive nodes are removed from the local endpoint database of the leaf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two features are supported for configuration synchronization? (Choose two )
A. port profile
B. GEM pre-provisioning
C. configurations rollbacks
D. feature sets
E. FCoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which configuration is needed to extend the EPG out of the Cisco ACI fabric?
A. Create external bridged networks
B. Statically assign a port to EPG
C Apply a policy between the internal and the external EPG
C. Extend the tenant subnet of the bridge domain out of the fabric
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives multi destination traffic?
A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic
B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic
C. The traffic is suppressed
D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You are configuration a group of web servers and you create a contract that uses TCP port
80. Which action allows an external Layer 3 cloud to initiate communication with the EPG that contains the web servers?
A. Configure the EPG as a consumer and L3Out as provider of the contract
B. Configure OSPF to exchange routes between the L3Out and EPG
C. Create a taboo contract and apply it to the EPG
D. Configure the EPG as a provider and L3Out as consumer of the contract.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch. The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens
next is true’?
A. The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch
B. The packet is dropped on the leaf switch
C. The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain
D. The packet is flooded across the entire fabric because it is an unknown unicast.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two )
A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption
B. VEM stops working
C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally
D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption
E. VMware vMotion stops working
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8
What is the retention period for remotely attached endpoint?
A. 3 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which feature of a Cisco Nexus 1000V Servers Switch allows you to deploy traffic steering for a virtual infrastructure?
A. SOT
B. PVLAN
C. ACL
D. vPath
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit:
For which option is the L3OUT-1 connection used?
A. bridge domain BD2
B. private network CIX1
C. private network Network-2
D. bridge domain BD1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs. You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric. How many VMKNICs must you add?A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You have a contract between in-band and out-of-band EPGs. Which two descriptions of this contention are true? (Choose two )
A. Filters apply m the incoming direction only
B. Both EPGs must be m one VRF
C. Management statistics are available
D. Shared services for CPU-bound traffic are supported
E. The configuration supports Layer 2
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which type of server is needed to provide POAP with a configuration script?
A. DHCP
B. SCP
C. FTP
D. TFTP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration?
A. The device locates a DHCP server
B. The device enters POAP mode
C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server
D. The device installs software image and a configuration file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two options are advantages of VMware AVS instead of a VMware vDS? (Choose two )
A. AVS supports vPath
B. AVS supports VLAN
C. AVS provides a single point of management for networking
D. AVS supports VXLAN
E. AVS supports micro segmentation
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which protocol is used as the link-state routing protocol for a DFA fabric?
A. VXLAN
B. EIGRP
C. Fabric Path IS-IS
D. OSPF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?
A. The node is decommissioned
B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
The behavior of which packet type can be controlled by selecting unicast mode or flood mode in a bridge domain?
A. ARP
B. unknown unicast
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing?
A. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command
B. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days
C. Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command
D. Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit :
You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el” Which option is the result of this configuration?
A. The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps
B. The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps
C. The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface.
D. The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )
A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionalityC. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco technology addresses management and performance concerns in a data center by unifying physical and virtual switch management?
A. VSO
B. SVM
C. VM-FEX
D. AVS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You are deploying L4-L7 services within Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure You need to modify an existing service graph. Where do you configure this?
A. under the provider EPG
B. on a connector within a service graph
C. on a function profile within a service graph
D. on a terminal node within a service graph
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 25
Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two )
A. the fabric node vector configuration
B. the LLDP adjacency configuration
C. the out of-band management configuration
D. the cluster configuration
E. the APIC LLDP configuration
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 26
Which component is excluded from a device package ZIP file?
A. debug logs
B. device-level configuration parameters
C. function profile
D. device scripts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which type of discovery is used in the Cisco ACI fabric for automatic discovery?
A. ACI
B. Cisco APIC
C. DHCP
D. LLDR
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
When connecting to an external Layer 3 network, which two dynamic routing protocols can be used? (Choose two )
A. RIPv2
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
D. lS-IS
E. OSPF
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 29
Which option are L4-L7 devices registered as on a Cisco APIC?
A. one virtual device
B. a cluster
C. one physical device
D. more virtual devices
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A host connected to a leaf switch sends an ARP request By default, what does the ingress switch do with the ARP requests?
A. Suppress the ARP
B. Send the ARP by using unicast.
C. Send the ARP by using a broadcast
D. Send the ARP by using multicast
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 31
You create a dynamic VLAN pool to be used for Virtual Machine Manager integration On which two other components must you ensure the VLANs m the pool are allowed? (Choose two )
A. AVS
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V
C. the intermediate switch
D. vS witch
E. the Cisco UCS blade system
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 32
Which Cisco APlC health score will be affected if an EPG does not have a Bridge Domain associated with it ?
A. spine health
B. leaf health
C. tenant health
D. pod health
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit:
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Which option describes the results of running the configuration on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch?
A. A schedule” job named Backup backs up the configuration to a file named backup-cfg.
B. A scheduler job named backup-cfg runs daily at 2:00.
C. A scheduler job named Backup runs twice dailyD. A scheduler job named Backup runs daily at 2 00 and save the configuration to a file named backup-cfg.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which type of Embedded Event Manager component pars events with one or more actions to troubleshoot or recover from the event?
A. monitor
B. action
C. policy
D. event
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 35
You have a network that has three subnets You migrate the network to a Cisco ACI fabric You want to bridge the three subnets without changing the IP addresses of the endpoints The default gateway for the endpoints does not sit on the ACI
fabric. Which action must you take to keep the three subnets in a single Hood domain?
A. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing disabled within the same EPO Connect the existing subnets to the bridge domains
B. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing disabled and connect the existing subnets to the bridge domain
C. Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing enabled and create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domain Connect the existing network to the bridge domain
D. Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing enabled within the saw EPG Create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domains and connect the existing network to the bridge domains.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
You discover that a VLAN is not enabled on a leaf port even though on EPG is provisioned.
Which cause of the issue is most likely true?
A. Cisco Discovery protocol is enabled m the interface policy group
B. A VLAN pool is not defined under the associated physical domain
C. The VLAN is not specified in a contract
D. An interface policy must define the VLAN pool
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
pass4itsure 300-170 question
Refer to the exhibit:
You perform the configuration as shown in the exhibit Which two additional tasks must you perform to deploy EPG on PC . VPC . or Interface? (Choose two )
A. Add the border leaf node to the Layer 2 outside connection
B. Create an Attachable Access Entity Profile
C. Create a Layer 2 outside connection
D. Create a physical domain and a VLAN pool for the physical domain, and associate the physical domain to the EPG WEB
E. Extend the VLAN represented by EPG out pi the Cisco ACI fabric
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
Which two method does a Cisco APIC supports to connect to the management IP address of a service appliance? (Choose two.)
A. out-of-band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the management VLAN D in band connectivity to devices in device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
B. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the VRF of the tenant
C. out-of-band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
D. in band connectivity to devices m device clusters by using the management VRF of the tenant
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 39
What occurs when you make an interface a member of an existing VRF m Cisco NX-OS?
A. The a VRF-Aware services start to be filtered
B. You are prompted to enter an IP address assignment
C. All of the Layer 3 configurations are removed
D. The state of the interface is changed to down
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 40
You need to create and configure a VRF for IP forwarding on a Cisco Nexus Series Switch running in NX-OS. Drag and drop the configuration steps from the left into the correct order on the right. Not all options are used.
pass4itsure 300-170 question

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QUESTION 1
You manage Cisco UCS -Series Rack-Mount Servers. Which three components can you upgrade by using the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility? (Choose three.)
A. the LAN on motherboard
B. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller
C. the operating system images
D. the system BIOS
E. the fabric interconnects
F. the FEX modules
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/lomug/2- 0x/b_huu_2_0_3/b_huu_2_0_3_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can a user with the ext-lan-policy privileges perform? (Choose three.)
A. Configure management interfaces on the fabric interconnect.
B. Configure Ethernet pin groups.
C. Configure management interfaces monitoring policy.
D. Create/modify/delete vNIC/vHBA placement policies.
E. Configure DNS providers and DNS domain.
F. Specify the allowed range for virtual MAC addresses.
G. Configure fabric interconnect system name.
H. This privilege has full access to all operations.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 3
You plan to implement FCoE on a Cisco UCS -Series server. Which option must you configure from the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI?
A. a vNIC failover
B. a boot table entry
C. NIV
D. FIP mode
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 21/b_Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_G uide_1_2 _1/
Cisco_UCS_CSeries_Servers_Integrated_Management_Controller_Configuration_Guid e_1_2_1_chapter9.html

QUESTION 4
You must upgrade a Cisco UCS -Series Server. Where must the Cisco UCS bundle image be located before you can begin the upgrade?
A. the Cisco Integrated Management Controller memory of the server
B. a USB drive connected to a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
C. a TFTP server accessible to the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect
D. the flash file system of the fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/firmware- mgmt/gui/21/b_GUI_Firmware_Management_21/downloading_and_managing_firmware_in _cisco_ucs_mana
ger.html#concept_1923688E7A2E46239DCAE363E4A3DE81

QUESTION 5
From the Cisco UCS Manager GUI, which two configurations can be performed for Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Servers from the rack server discovery policy? (Choose two.)
A. Whether the server is discovered immediately or after the acknowledgement of the administrator
B. Defines the scrub policy to be used upon discovery
C. Defines the management IP address to be associated to the server upon discovery
D. Reverts a -Series server from Cisco UCS domain mode to standalone mode
E. Defines the Cisco Host Upgrade Utility ISO file for the rack servers connected to the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 6
An administrator is testing the Cisco Nexus 1000v switch on top of a Cisco UCS Blade. They realize that the test VM traffic is not marked correctly after it leaves the Cisco UCS B- series blade. What is the reason for seeing this behavior?
A. The Cisco UCS does not support QoS marking
B. The Cisco UCS QoS policy applied to the blade has the host control set to “none.”
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches do not support QoS marking.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch QoS marking has not been enabled with “feature gos.”
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect. You associate a blade server to a service profile that has the Testing boot policy. Which statement describes the result of the configuration?
A. The iSCSI boot was created for the LAN boot policy.B. The blade server fails to boot due to a missing configuration line of set order 0.
C. The blade server first tries to boot by using vHBA3 across the SAN network.
D. The blade server first tries to boot from the local storage, and if this fails, it boots from vHBA3.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/configuring_server_boot.pdf

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement is true regarding this setup created by this configuration?
A. The NIC bypasses the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets
B. The applications interact directly with the OS Kernel
C. All of the other vNICs in the server are deleted and replaced by the usnic.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computi ng/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b_Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_C SeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about Cisco VM-FEX dynamic vNIC configuration and provisioning by using the Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by using SNMP.
B. Dynamic vNIC parameters must be configured manually before the virtual machine connects to its port group.
C. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured dynamically after the assigned virtual machine connects to the port group.
D. Dynamic vNIC parameters are enabled by using the Fibre Channel Forwarder protocol.
E. Dynamic vNIC parameters are configured by inheriting the port-group parameters of the associated virtual machines.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513 _n1_1/ n5k_ops_vmfex.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which two descriptions of a WWN pool are true? (Choose two.)
A. a collection of WWNs for use by the iSCSI interfaces in a Cisco UCS instance
B. a collection of Ethernet MAC addresses assigned to the Ethernet adapters in a Cisco UCS instance
C. a pool of WW port names, where WWPN is the port name assigned to the Fibre Channel port on the adapter
D. a collection of management IP addresses used to connect to servers
E. a pool of WW node names, where WWNN belongs to the node
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1- 31/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_ chapter22.html

QUESTION 11
Which statement about the purpose of a storage connection policy in Cisco UCS Manager is true?
A. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when vHBAs are configured in a service profile.
B. It defines how zoning is configured for initiators and targets on the fabric interconnect.
C. It sets a minimum baseline of requirements for when storage devices connect to the fabric interconnects.
D. It defines the number of storage connections that are allowed to connect to the fabric interconnects.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 12
Which three options are valid system classes for QoS in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose three.)
A. platinum
B. silver
C. best effort
D. voice
E. high-priority
F. FCoE
G. drop eligible
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Based on the output, which statement about the fabric interconnect is true?
A. The fabric interconnect floods multicast traffic in VLAN 100.
B. 10 groups in the fabric interconnect have been configured for VLAN 100 access.
C. After adding VLAN 100, no other changes were made.
D. IGMP snooping was enabled by the admin for VLAN 100.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 3 screenshot of UCS Manager. Which two items are required to configure an IPMI profile? (Choose two.)
A. IPMI Type
B. User
C. Role
D. Locale
E. Administrative State
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111 00.html#d129007e3491a1635

QUESTION 15
Which three options are needed when configuring local zoning on the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects? (Choose three.)
A. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC switching mode.
B. The fabric interconnects are operating in FC end-host mode.
C. SAN connectivity policy
D. storage connection policy
E. FC target endpoints
F. iSCSI target endpoints
Correct Answer: ADE
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which two factors determine the recommended maximum number of virtual interfaces on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)
A. the number of compute blades in the system
B. the number of interfaces sharing the uplinks
C. the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade
D. the number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c-series_integration/ucsm2- 0-2/b_UCSM_202_C-Integration/b_UCSM_202_CIntegration_chapter_01.html#reference_7F381038303B4825A CD303765905086A
The number of uplinks between I/O Module and Fabric Interconnect
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/Reference- Docs/ConfigurationLimits/31/b_UCS_Configuration_Limits_3_1.html the driver version on the OS running on the compute blade

QUESTION 17
Which three components perform the port extension functions for a Cisco UCS domain? (Choose three.)
A. the multiprotocol port on the Cisco storage
B. the Device Manager in Cisco Prime Data Center Network Manager
C. the Cisco UCS 2208XP IOMs
D. the Cisco UCS Manager
E. the Cisco Nexus 2232PP FEX
F. the Cisco UCS VIC adapter that has VM-FEX and Adapter FEX technology
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation

QUESTION 18
Which two policies can specify that a port channel be configured between the fabric extender and fabric interconnect? (Choose two.)
A. Chassis or fabric extender discovery policy
B. Rack server discovery policy
C. Rack management connection policy
D. Server inheritance policies
E. Autoconfig policies
F. Chassis connectivity policy
Correct Answer: AF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0110 0.html

QUESTION 19
Which boot option must be present in the boot policy to have the option to manually boot from the FlexFlash Secure Digital card?
A. any configuration
B. FlexFlash state
C. local disk
D. remote virtual drive
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which items are hot-swappable on a UCS C-Series Server? (Choose-two)
A. Internal Cooling Fans
B. Power Supplies
C. PCIe Card
D. Mezzanine Card
E. Riser CardCorrect Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C240M4/install/C240M4 /replace.html

QUESTION 21
Which tool provides automated support capability that provides continuous monitoring, proactive diagnostics, alerts, and remediation recommendations?
A. Cisco Smart Call Home
B. snmp
C. Cisco Director
D. Cisco Threat Gateway
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit below
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tab do you select to add an APIC account when adding an ACI fabric?
A. Multi-Domain Managers
B. Physical Accounts
C. Managed Network Elements
D. Bare Metal Agents
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/apic- management-guide/5-
4/b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_Guide_54b_UCS_Director_APIC_Management_G uide_54_chapter_011.html Step 1 On the menu bar, choose Administration > Physical Accounts.
Step 2 Click the Multi-Domain Managers tab.
Step 3 Click Add.
Step 4 In the Add Account dialog box, choose APIC from the Account Type drop-down list.
Step 5 Click Submit.

QUESTION 23
Which drive combination prevents you from provisioning RAID on Cisco UCS C-Series servers?
A. SAS HDD and SATA HDD
B. SAS SSD and SATA SSD
C. SATA HDD and SATA SSD
D. SAS HDD only
E. SATA HDD only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/raid/configuration/guide/ RAID_GUIDE.pdf

QUESTION 24
Which two statements about MAC addresses in the Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.)
A. The first 2 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
B. The first 3 octets represent the manufacturer OUI.
C. The last 3 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
D. The last 4 octets are assigned by the organization itself.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/oui-for-wwn-and-macs/td- p/1441710
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/when-to-use-wwnn-and- wwpn-pools/tdp/1614344
http://www.vmwareadmins.com/using-a-address-naming-convention-with-cisco-ucs/ https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/MAC_address

QUESTION 25
When deploying Nexus 5000 switches in NPV mode, what technology will help with resilience and increase throughput?
A. F-port-channel trunk
B. FCoE
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/san_switching/4 21_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_nxos_sanswitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1/Cisco_n5k_nxos_s
answitching_config_guide_rel421_n1_1_chapter7.html#con_133799

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
From the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI, the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter properties of a Cisco UCS -Series Server in standalone mode are configured as shown. Which three options are results of the configuration?
(Choose three.)
A. Sixteen dynamic vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
B. A description for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is assigned.
C. Sixteen static vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
D. FIP support on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is enabled.
E. Sixteen dynamic device aliases for vNICs on the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter are provisioned.
F. NIV mode for the Cisco Network Assistant VIC adapter is disabled.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-5000-seriesswitches/117690- configure-vmfex-00.html

QUESTION 27
Which statement about high-availability clusters for Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects is true?
A. Peers in a cluster must connect to each other by using two 10-Gbps links.
B. The cluster requires a minimum of two IP addresses.
C. The management plane is active/standby.
D. The data plane is active/standby.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 .html

QUESTION 28
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation

QUESTION 29
Which option lists the features that are needed to install VMware ESXi on a local drive from an image file?
A. Virtual Media and VMFS
B. Virtual Media and Virtual KVM
C. Virtual Boot and VMFS
D. Virtual KVM and Virtual Boot
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/smb-technologist/installing-vsphere-on-cisco-ucs-cseries- servers/

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
What statement happens after the following commands are executed?
A. The server is rebooted
B. Server is up
C. Server TroubleshootingCorrect Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/usnic/c/deployment/2_0_X/b _Cisco_usNIC_Deployment_Guide_For_Standalone_CSeriesServers.html#task_7B190C1 F34C64BF7A04DF01D5E60454D

QUESTION 31
You are implementing a UCS B-Series environment for a customer with both bare-metal and virtualized servers. The bare-metal servers require two vNICs and two vHBAs. Administrators of virtualized servers will be utilizing VN-Link
technology. Which adapter should be recommended?
A. Cisco UCS M81KR
B. Cisco UCS M72KR-Q
C. Cisco UCS M71KR-E
D. Cisco UCS P81E
E. Cisco UCS M51KR-B
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
M81KR (supports many adapters and VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/data_sheet_c78-525049.html M72KR-Q (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-623738.html M71KR-E (supports only one adapter, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b-series- blade-servers/ data_sheet_c78-703582.html P81E (supports many adapters, does not support VN-LINK)
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/ collateral/servers -unified-computing/ucs-c-series- rack-servers/ data_sheet_c78-558230.html M51KR-B (this is not a converged network adapter CNA, and does not support vHBAs)
https:// www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-b- series-blade- servers/spec_sheet_c17-644236.pdf

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Fabric Interconnect B is in a primary state. Which IP addresses can you use to connect to Fabric Interconnect B?
A. 10.0.0.198, 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200
B. 10.0.0.199 only
C. 10.0.0.199 and 10.0.0.200 only
D. 10.0.0.200 only
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 33
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 5. Which of the following user roles allows the permission Clear All Logs?
A. read-only
B. user
C. operator
D. system
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 1.html

QUESTION 34
Which two statements about Call Home are true? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual IP address of the Cisco UCS Manager in a cluster is the source of the email.
B. In a cluster configuration, at least one fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity.
C. The fabric interconnect must have IP connectivity to email server or the destination HTTP server
D. At least one destination profile must be configured.
E. Call Home requires SCP to transfer the files securely.
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation

QUESTION 35
You have a Cisco UCS server connected to Cisco Fabric Interconnects. Which two options are characteristics of a virtual machine that is deployed by using VMFEX in high- performance mode in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. The virtual machine connects to a Cisco VIF on the external switch by using Cisco VN- Link in hardware, bypassing the hypervisor.
B. The dynamic vNIC can connect redundantly by using hardware-based failover to the Cisco UCS Fabric
interconnect cluster.
C. Dynamic vNICs inherit parameters from static vNICs
D. The virtual machine can share the same dynamic vNIC with another virtual machine in VMFEX highperformance mode
E. The virtual machine deployed in VM-FEX high-performance mode runs on the host by using the default
BIOS policy that is available in the Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In high-performance mode, traffic to and from a virtual machine (VM) bypasses the DVS and hypervisor. Traffic travels directly between VMs and the virtual interface card (VIC) adapter.
The benefits of high-performance mode are as follows:
-Increases I/O performance and throughput.
-Decreases I/O latency.
-Improves CPU utilization for virualized I/O-intensive applications. You must modify or create several policies in order for VM-FEX for VMware to function optimally:
-VMwarePassThrough Ethernet Adapter Policy (high-performance mode only) -Dynamic vNIC Connection Policies
-BIOS Policy (high-performance mode only)
-VM Lifecycle Policy
Dynamic vNICs are always protected in Cisco UCS, but this field allows you to select a preferred fabric, if any. You can choose one of the following:
-Protected Pref A–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric A but fails over to fabric B if necessary
-Protected Pref B–Cisco UCS attempts to use fabric B but fails over to fabric A if necessary Protected–Cisco UCS uses whichever fabric is available Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/confi g_guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_VMware_VMFEX_ UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01.html

QUESTION 36
Which configuration must be made to run the fabric interconnects as a vPC pair?
A. The Ethernet mode must be set to switching.
B. The Layer 1 and Layer 2 cables must be configured as a vpc
C. The fabric interconnects cannot run as a VPC pair
D. The ethernet mode must be set to end host
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/benefits-to-vpc-on-6200s- fabric-interconnects-inucs/td-p/2086588

QUESTION 37
Which statement about Adapter FEX is true?
A. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the server.
B. Adapter FEX extends the fabric into the hypervisor.
C. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the FEX port.
D. Adapter FEX extends the fabric down to the VM.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 38
Which two statements about the maintenance policy configurations available from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI are true? (Choose two.)
A. A maintenance policy can be defined for the service profile associated to a server and for updating a service profile bound to one or more service profiles.
B. A maintenance policy is used to configure a nondisruptive upgrade of the Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnects.
C. A maintenance policy can defer the direct deployment of firmware images for components that use neither the host firmware nor the management firmware packages available in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as fabric interconnects and
IOMs.
D. A maintenance policy can deploy service profile changes immediately, when acknowledged by an admin user or automatically at the time specified in the schedule.
E. A maintenance policy can be used only to apply nondisruptive service profile changes to servers.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0111
10.html#concept_3735BFD6DA5A49CF90B1B4EEE6BCBF25

QUESTION 39
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter7.html

QUESTION 40
An admin wants to make sure that for each VLAN added to a vNIC, a static MAC address entry is added to the fabric interconnect. Which setting within Cisco UCS Manager accomplishes this task?
A. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
B. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to All Host VLANs.
C. The MAC Register Mode in the network control policy is set to All Host VLANs.
D. The MAC Register Mode in the LAN connectivity policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
E. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to All Host VLANs.
F. The MAC Register Mode in the link protocol policy is set to Only Native VLAN.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 41
Which three AAA protocols are supported for communication with external AAA providers? (Choose three.)
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. AD
D. LDAP
E. ACS
F. 802.1XCorrect Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Cisco UCS supports two methods to authenticate user logins: Through user accounts local to Cisco UCS Manager Remotely through one of the following protocols:
LDAP
RADIUS
TACACS+
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_95086D8A9B594FD29A3BD8AF5 D2DA1FC

QUESTION 42
Which option describes the difference between “high-performance” and “none” on a VM- FEX port profile?
A. None is software assisted, and high-performance is software and hardware assisted.
B. None indicates that VM-FEX is not used on this interface, and high-performance indicates that is used.
C. None is used for management profiles, and high-performance is used for mission-critical data profiles.
D. None assumes default scheduling settings for the port profile, and high-performance gives the ports priority in scheduling.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 43
You are configuring integration between the Cisco UCS Manager and the VMware vCenter Server Appliance. Which three actions must you perform from the Cisco Configure VMware Integration Wizard? (Choose three.)
A. Define the virtual machine port profile in the Cisco UCS Manager for virtual machine traffic.
B. Install and register the Cisco UCS Manager extension as a plug-in in the VMware vCenter.
C. Install and register the VMware VM Console plug-in in the Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Apply a port profile (port group) to the virtual machines on the VMware vCenter server.
E. Apply the Firewall Services Module UCS service profile to Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server.
F. Apply a fabric profile to both Cisco Fabric Interconnect uplink ports.
Correct Answer: ABD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/vmware/gui/config _guide/2-2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_GUI_VMware_VM-
FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_2_2_1_chapter_0100.html

QUESTION 44
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 4 screenshot of the UCS Manager. Which item can only be configured in the Storage Cloud?
A. iQN Pools
B. Storage FC Clinks
C. Port Channels
D. VSANs
E. Zoning
Correct Answer: D
ExplanationExplanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucsinfrastructure- ucs-manager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html

QUESTION 45
Which statement about an iSCSI vNIC when it is created with an overlay NIC is true?
A. It can have any VLAN allowed on it.
B. It can be assigned a unique MAC address.
C. It can have a unique pin group assigned to it.
D. It can have only the overlays native VLAN associated to it.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 46
Which backup option must be performed from the Cisco UCS Manager to allow for a system restore?
A. Database backup
B. Logical configuration
C. System configuration
D. Full state
E. All configuration
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_G UI_Co nfiguration_Guide_141_chapter43.html

QUESTION 47
You have chosen to defer updates to service profiles and to schedule updates. Which option do you modify in the maintenance-policy to accomplish this goal?
A. Reboot Policy
B. Schedule
C. Description
D. Other
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 48
Which two settings are required when utilizing DirectPath I/O? (Choose two.)
A. CPU pinning
B. full memory reservation
C. Set port profile performance to “high”.
D. vCPU pinning
E. VM queue modification
F. adapter profile update
G. Install DirectPath VIB on host.
H. Enable VMQ with the “enable-netadaptervmq” cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 49
When performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager, which backup type must you do to backup locally authenticated users?
A. System configuration
B. All configuration
C. Full State
D. Logical Configuration
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
A service profile is created using vHBAs. What will happen if the profile is applied to a server with a mezzanine card without storage capability?
A. The blade association will fail.
B. The storage adapter will not be visible to the operating system.
C. A virtual storage adapter will be created.
D. A WWNN or a WWPN will be autoselected from the default pool.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/data-center-blogs/c-series-resolve-service-profile- association-failure-when/ba-p/3103082 https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_
GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#topic_4B2EC5A485E54A2893D02A7BB5F 3E039 In addition to any guidelines or recommendations that are specific to policies and pools included in service profiles and service profile
templates, such as the local disk configuration policy, you need to be aware of the following guidelines and recommendations that impact the ability to associate a service profile with a server.

QUESTION 51
Which parameter can be configured during the initial system setup of Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect from the CLI, without restoring the configuration from an existing backup?
A. the server ports, network ports, and storage ports
B. the reserved VLAN IDs
C. the default number of dynamic vNICs
D. standalone mode or cluster mode of the fabric interconnects
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_0101.html#task_40AC6321816C401EBF1666DB32F6E954

QUESTION 52
Which boot option is recommended for a boot policy because it offers the most service profile mobility within a system?
A. iSCSI boot
B. local disk boot
C. LAN boot
D. SAN boot
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 53
You attempt to perform an ESXi update on a Cisco UCS C250 server, but the update does not recognize the NICs. You must perform the update as quickly as possible. Which step must you do first?
A. Check the UCS compatibility matrix and replace the NIC with a supported one.
B. Reconfigure the NIC ID on the LOM.
C. Update the LOM firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.
D. Update the NIC firmware by using the Cisco Host Update Utility.Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/ucs240m3-network- interfaces-missing-on-esxi-5-1u1/td-p/2415392 http://terenceluk.blogspot.com/2011/08/updating-firmware-for-cisco-ucs-c.html

QUESTION 54
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the Exhibit 2 screenshot of the NX-OS shell CLI in UCS Manager. What LAN policy correlates with the line “pinning server pinning-failure link-down”?
A. Dynamic vNIC Connection
B. Link Protocol
C. Flow Control
D. Network Control
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- 5100-seriesblade-server-chassis/116075-ucs-app-connectivity-tshoot-00.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha
pter_010101.html#concept_80DD753607A0427A9874F278E172F2FA

QUESTION 55
Which two options are valid server pool policy qualifications? (Choose two.)
A. server model
B. description
C. user label
D. power group
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 56
Which two constructs allow for configuration of VLANs on specific uplink ports? (Choose two.)
A. LAN pin group
B. adapter policies
C. vNIC templates
D. VLAN manager
E. link profiles
F. VLAN groups
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter17.html
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-0- 2/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter14.html

QUESTION 57
Under which condition can you select the option to “remove” a blade server from within the Cisco UCS Manager?
A. The server has been decommissioned before physical removal.
B. The server has been sent a diagnostic interrupt.
C. The server has been physically removed before decommission.
D. The server has been powered down.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 58
Which policy is used to specify how Cisco UCS Manager should proceed for configuration changes that will have a service impact?
A. host firmware policy
B. maintenance policy
C. local disk policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 59
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-175 question
You are configuring an uplink port on FI-A. Which option describes the result of the configuration.
A. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
B. Creates a port channel for FCoE uplink 1 through 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
C. Creates an interface for FCoE uplink port 2 on slot 8 of fabric A and commits the transaction
D. Creates an interface of Fibre Channel storage port 8 on slot 2 of fabric A and commits the transaction
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/cli/config/guide/2- 1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_CLI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapt er_0110.html

QUESTION 60
The system-reserved VLANs within Cisco UCS are 3968 to 4048 by default. Where can a user change the starting value of this range?
A. VLAN manager
B. global policies
C. LAN cloud
D. cannot be changed
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 61
Which scheduling option sets the number of tasks that can be run?
A. max number of concurrent tasks
B. max changes
C. max number of tasks
D. max configuration requests
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 62
Which statement about fabric failover for Fibre Channel communication is true?
A. You can enable hardware Fibre Channel failover.
B. Cisco UCS load balances Fibre Channel traffic between the two fabrics.
C. You must use a Fibre Channel multipath I/O driver.
D. You do not have to use anything.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/t5/unified-computing-system/san-multi-pathing-best- practices/td-p/1545645
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/unified-computing- system/116471-configure-npiv-00.html#anc9
https://kb.netapp.com/support/s/article/how-to-verify-windows-fibre-channel-configurations- with-multipathing-io-mpio?language=en_US

QUESTION 63
Which technology makes VM-FEX possible?
A. VXLAN
B. VNTAG
C. VPC
D. DVS
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 64
With Cisco UCS Manager, in which location do you monitor the chassis discovery process?
A. CMC
B. FSM
C. CDP
D. DME
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0100 011.html

QUESTION 65
You configure a service profile template from the Cisco UCS Manager GUI by using the Create Local Disk Configuration Policy option The No RAID local disk policy mode is selected and the Protect Configuration property is disabled. You
create a service profile that is created from the service profile template. You apply the service profile to a server that has an operating system installed on a RAID-10 volume. Which statement about the server after it is associated to the
service profile is true?A. The server has RAID-0 configured on the local disk.
B. The server has RAID-1 configured on the local disk.
C. The server has the local storage detached.
D. The local disk of the server remains RAID-10.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 66
Which two statements about the provisioning of Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VT-D feature on the ESX host server must be disabled before you can enable VMDirectPath.
B. VM-FEX standard mode is the same as VM-FEX high-performance mode.
C. Enabling high performance turns on VMDirectPath mode.
D. VMDirectPath mode prevents the use of VMware vMotion.
E. To use Cisco VM-FEX DirectPath I/O mode, a virtual machine must have a dynamic vNIC and two static vNICs on the VIC adapter.
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center- virtualization/unifiedcomputing/vm_fex_best_practices_deployment_guide.html

QUESTION 67
Which slot(s) contain DIMMs in a 1DPC configuration on Cisco UCS blade server?
A. 0
B. 1 and 2 only.
C. 1
D. 2
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/hw/bladeservers/install/B200.html

QUESTION 68
When deploying a dynamic FCoE topology using ECMP, what ancillary technology is used?
A. Fabricpath
B. EIGRP
C. VXLAN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://blogs.cisco.com/datacenter/what-is-dynamic-fcoe

QUESTION 69
Which maintenance action releases the assigned chassis ID for future use?
A. Acknowledge chassis
B. Reset CMOS
C. Decommission chassis
D. Remove chassis
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/22/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/managing_the_chassis.html#task_EB93895D63664D86ACDE9D13C222A452

QUESTION 70
Which of the following supports more than two component-resident versions of firmware?
A. mezzanine adapters
B. I/O modules
C. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects
D. CIMCs
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/110511-ucs-fw-mgmt-00.html
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/FirmwareMgmt/31/b_UCSM_GUI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1/b_UCSM_G
UI_Firmware_Management_Guide_3_1_chapter_011.html#task_C8E850B883D741BFBEF 0FBBA409C6CB7

QUESTION 71
Which two parameters are used by Cisco UCS for automatic Fibre Channel uplink pinning?
A. server WWN
B. MDS WWNN
C. VSAN membership
D. hash algorithm
E. vHBA MAC address
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/3- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0/b_UCSM_GUI_User_Guide_3_0_chapter_011000.html https:// www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/
sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_cha pter_010110.html#task_2F3F6BFFC4384A2F8809492F9DE8FD23

QUESTION 72
Which four physical connections on a fabric interconnect are needed to perform the initial system setup for a cluster configuration? (Choose four.)
A. Ethernet uplink ports connected to upstream switch
B. console port connected to a computer terminal or console server.
C. Layer 1 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
D. Layer 1 port of the first fabric interconnect connected to Layer 2 port of the second fabric interconnect
E. Layer 2 ports on both fabric interconnects connected to each other
F. Fibre Channel uplink ports connected to upstream fabric switch
G. management Ethernet port (mgmt0) connected to external switch or router
H. port channel to each fabric interconnect
Correct Answer: BCEG
Explanation

QUESTION 73
Which policy determines what happens to local disks when they are disassociated from a service profile?
A. maintenance policy
B. local disk policyC. scrub policy
D. BIOS policy
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 74
Which two components can be specified in a host firmware package? (Choose two.)
A. CPU
B. BIOS
C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
D. LOM
E. DIMM
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation

QUESTION 75
While configuring VM-FEX for Hyper-V, the virtual switch does not show up when you add the host with the port-profile management snap-in. Which statement describes the most likely cause?
A. SR-IOV is not enabled for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V.
B. Cisco Nexus 1000v is not enabled for the virtual switch.
C. Hyper-V requires Cisco UCS Manager to utilize Cisco Discovery Protocol on the vNIC profile.
D. An active VM is not associated with the port profile.
E. VM-FEX does not work with Hyper-V.
F. VM-FEX has been configured on the Catalyst switch but not in System Center yet.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 76
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which log would you view to determine which UCS Manager user modified a Service Profile?
A. Events
B. Audit
C. Syslog
D. SEL
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/20/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_0_chapter_0101101.html

QUESTION 77
Which three parameters can be configured for a vHBA? (Choose three.)
A. Enable persistent binding.B. Enable a hardware-based failover.
C. Define a SAN pin group
D. Assign a QoS policy.
E. Define an MTU.
F. Assign a MAC address.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/21/b_UCS M_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_1_chapter_0110 10.html

QUESTION 78
While configuring communication between vCenter and Cisco UCS, which two items are contained in the extension file? (Choose two.)
A. extension key
B. plug-in version information
C. SSL private certificate
D. Cisco UCS Manager SSL public certificate
E. SSH public key
F. Cisco UCS Manager admin credentials
G. IP address of the hosts utilizing VM link
H. vCenter SSL public certificate
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation

QUESTION 79
Which three statements are a result of utilizing org permissions on VLANs within a sub- org? (Choose three.)
A. VLAN IDs can be defined only once globally.
B. VLAN IDs can be defined within each sub-org.
C. VLAN name must match across orgs and sub-orgs.
D. VLAN name can be different per sub-org.
E. Sub-org vNICs can utilize parent org VLANs.
F. Parent org vNICs can utilize sub-org VLANs.
G. Sub-org vNICs can utilize only parent org native VLANs.
Correct Answer: BDF
Explanation

QUESTION 80
Scenario
In this scenario, you will refer to screenshots about Cisco UCS B-Series servers and UCS Manager.
Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Refer to the screenshot in Exhibit 2. Which item is true about Boot Order in Cisco UCS – Series Rack Servers?
A. Boot order configured in the BIOS will not be reflected in the Cisco IMC GUI.
B. Boot options should not be disabled in the BIOS.
C. The Boot Order set in the BIOS does not override the Cisco IMC.
D. Boot Order should only be configured in the Cisco IMC GUI.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 81
Which command sequence in the Cisco UCS C-Series rack server CLI sends tech support data to a TFTP server?
A. ucs-c250 / # scope cimc
ucs-c250 /cimc # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /cimc/tech-support *# commit
B. ucs-c250 / # scope system
ucs-c250 /system # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /system/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /system/tech-support *# commit
C. ucs-c250 / # scope support
ucs-c250 /support # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /support/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /support/tech-support *# commit
D. ucs-c250 / # scope fault
ucs-c250 /fault # scope tech-support
ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support # set path default.tar.gz ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# set tftp-ip 192.168.70.45 ucs-c250 /fault/tech-support *# commit
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guid
e_1_1_2_chapter13.html#task_551DFD0E88124951A54DC305C29F7F7C This example creates a support data file and transfers the file to a TFTP server:
Server# scope cimc
Server /cimc # scope tech-support
Server /cimc/tech-support # set tftp-ip 10.20.30.41 Server /cimc/tech-support *# set path /user/user1/supportfile Server /cimc/tech-support *# commit Server /cimc/tech-support # start Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/cli/config/guide/1-1- 2/b_Cisco_CIMC_CLI_Configuration_Guide_1_1_2/

QUESTION 82
Which four Cisco UCS components use the Cisco NX-OS syslog services to generate syslog entries for system information and alerts? (Choose four.)
A. I/O module
B. fabric interconnect
C. chassis
D. Cisco Integrated Management Controller
E. Cisco UCS Manager
F. adapter
G. Ethernet uplink
H. storage moduleCorrect Answer: ADEF
Explanation

QUESTION 83
Which statement about the Cisco Integrated Management Controller configuration utility for Cisco UCS CSeries servers is true?
A. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports SSL3 and HTLM5.
B. To connect to the Cissco Integrated Management Controller GUI, you must use a web browser that supports HTTP and Microsoft Silverlight.
C. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco In Management Controller to use a static IP address only.
D. While in BIOS, you can configure the Cisco Integrated Management Controller to use a static IP address or an IP address from DHCP
E. When the IP address is configured in BIOS, you can point a Web browser to the configured IP address to open the Cisco Integrated Management Controller GUI.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-c200-m1-high- density-rack-mountserver/111455-setup-cimc-c-series.html

QUESTION 84
You have been tasked with performing a backup through Cisco UCS Manager that can be used to restore the system during disaster recovery. Which type of backup must you perform?
A. System configuration
B. Full state
C. All configuration
D. Logical configuration
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-manager/GUI-User- Guides/AdminManagement/31/b_Cisco_UCS_Admin_Mgmt_Guide_3_1/b_Cisco_UCS_Ad
min_Mgmt_Guide_3_1_chapter_01001.html#task_C1FFA04FACF24B818316B802FC11E B19

QUESTION 85
Which Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server is capable of RAID 5?
A. B200
B. B250
C. B230
D. B440
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B200 2 Bays
B250 2 Bays
B230 2 BaysB440 4 Bays
The only server that could possibly support RAID 5 is the B440 Reference:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels#RAID_5 RAID 5 requires at least 3 disks.

QUESTION 86
Which two parameters must be configured on a standalone Cisco UCS C-Series Server to export the technical support data to a remote server? (Choose two)
A. Specify a remote TFTP server IP address.
B. Install a certificate
C. Install an FTP server
D. Set the source as the UCS server IP address.
E. Specify the remote relative path and file name.
Correct Answer: AE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 0/b_Cisco_UCS_Cseries_GUI_Configuration_Guide_201.pdf

QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-175 question
Which tables correctly map the HIF ports to active FEX NIF ports on a Cisco UCS 2208X IOM in discrete pinning mode?
A. Table 2 and Table 4
B. Table 1 and T able 4
C. Table 2 and Table 3
D. Table 1 and Table 2
E. Table 3 and Table 4
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ts/guide/UCSTroubleshooting/ UCSTr oubleshooting_chapter_01001.html

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.
Boot Uption #1
Internal EFI Shell
SATA: HL-DT-STDVDRAM GT40N
IBA GE Slot 1600 v1335
Cisco Virtual FDD/HDD 1.22
(Bus 12 Dev 00) PCI RAID Adapter
Disabled
Which statement about the ESXi installation on a Cisco UCS C-Series server is true?
A. The ESXi is installed on a local drive and the SATA drive is selected as the first boot option
B. The ESXi is installed on a local RAID array and the local RAID group is selected as the first boot optionC. During the ESXi installation process, on a local RAID you must select the local RAID group
D. During the ESXi installation process, you must select the location of the ESXi image file.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 89
Which options is the only supported link aggregation protocol on Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Multipath
B. PagP
C. FLOGI
D. LACP
E. FCOE
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
UCS port channel configuration is statically set to Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) mode active. This configuration cannot be modified; therefore, all upstream port- channel configurations must adhere to LACP mode active as well.
Alternatively, you can configure the upstream switchports for LACP mode passive.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- manager/116095-configure-ucsupstream-port-channel-00.html

QUESTION 90
Which two AAA protocols are supported by a remote AAA database? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Active Directory
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

Reference:

https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html#concept_FAA777771F5D4F14A82A479CE D0D4AF 4
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When suspending or deleting VSANs, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. You can delete only one VSAN at a time.
B. You must wait 60 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
C. You must wait 120 seconds after you enter the vsan suspend command before you enter another command.
D. You can unsuspend only one VSAN at a time.
E. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same domain.
F. You can delete multiple VSANs as long as they are in the same zone.
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A customer is having a problem with NPV. Which of these is the cause of the problem?
A. No server was requested or received by the FLOGI database.
B. One external link must be up for server interface to be up.
C. Multiple external links must be up for the server to come up.
D. Internal links are down and must be up for the server interface to be up.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Which statement is true regarding the port channel 100 and 101 configurations between the Nexus 7010 switches?
A. The vPC assignments on N7010-C2 are incorrectly swapped
B. N7010-C1 is not allowing any active VLAN traffic to pass on Po100 and Po101.
C. LACP is not configured to initiate negotiations.
D. The vPC peer-keepalive is down between the two Nexus 7000 switches.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which three of these would cause two switch fabrics not to merge? (Choose three.)
A. Two or more switches do not have at least one assigned domain ID in common.
B. Two switches have different assigned VSANs on the connecting ports.
C. Two switches have different assigned VLANs on the connecting ports.
D. The static domain ID does not override the dynamic ID.
E. The election of the static domain is only determined by the WWNs of the two switches.
F. The physical connectivity between the two switches is not active.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 6
OTV is configured ?test pings confirm that it is working but other tests do not seem to perform well. What is the problem?
A. VLANs are not properly extended.
B. The multicast groups are not defined properly.
C. The transport network is not configured to process the overhead that is introduced by OTV.
D. The overlay may not be enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are attempting to configure boot from SAN on your server that is attached to a Cisco MDS 9148 Fibre Channel switch. What is a possible issue that may occur?
A. Check the status of the licenses on the Fibre Channel switch.
B. NPV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
C. NPIV is not configured on the Fibre Channel switch.
D. Boot from SAN is not supported via the Fibre Channel protocol.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When you ping your new Cisco Nexus 7010 Switch, you see this output:
!!…!!…!!…!!…!!…
What could be the problem?
A. Traffic may be taking a bad route through the network.
B. HSRP is flapping.
C. CoPP is rate-limiting the pings.
D. The switch has high CPU utilization.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
If no traffic was ever sent across the overlay, what will the show mac address-table command on the OTV VDC indicate?
A. invalid command
B. the MAC address of the local OTV join interface
C. the system IDs of all the local OTV edge devices
D. the system IDs of all the local and remote edge devices in the overlay
E. all the MAC addresses learned on the extended VLAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why do the lists not contain the same switches, after you issue the commands show cfs peers name and show cfs merge status?
A. The merge cannot occur until the VSAN IDs are synched.
B. The Cisco Fabric Services fabric has a physical port fault that should be investigated.
C. The fabric is partitioned into multiple Cisco Fabric Services fabrics.
D. Cisco Fabric Services need to be restarted to see the new switches.
E. A Cisco Fabric Services database lock has prevented the merge.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which command would you use to find the AED of an extended VLAN in a dual-homed site of an OTV network?
A. show otv aed on the AED
B. show otv site on any edge devices in the site
C. show otv vlan on the AED
D. show otv aed on any edge devices in the site
E. show otv vlan on any edge devices in the site
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator sets up a FabricPath network. The administrator tries to ping between two SVI interfaces on the leaf switches 10 and 20, but it fails. What caused the pings to fail?
A. Switches S10 and S20 do not have F2 modules.
B. The vPC peer gateway must be enabled on switches S10 and S20.
C. Switches S1, S2, and S3 should be interconnected directly.
D. VLAN 10 is not enabled on the spine switches (S1, S2, and S3).
E. Layer 3 over a vPC+ peer link is not supported.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in the local site? (Choose two.)
A. show otv overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 14
Which command on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch will show the interface information for port 10 on the connected FEX 100?
A. show interface Ethernet 100/10
B. show fex 100 interface Ethernet 1/10
C. show interface Ethernet 100/1/10
D. show interface Ethernet 1/100/10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What are three situations that may cause an ISSU failure? (Choose three.)
A. A module is removed while the upgrade is in progress.
B. A proper ISSU license is not in place.
C. The device has a power disruption while the upgrade is in progress.
D. A line card is in a failure state.
E. The specified system and kickstart images are not compatible.
F. The management interface is not in the correct VRF.G. The secondary supervisor is not installed.
H. The redundancy force-switchover command was used during the ISSU.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 16
Which command helps to determine if there are any conflicts in the network with respect to a FabricPath configuration?
A. show licenses
B. show fabricpath conflict
C. show fabricpath conflict all
D. switchport mode fabricpath
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a dual Cisco Nexus 7010 Switches in its data center. Customer’s representatives want to know how to determine if Cisco IOS ISSU is possible on the switches as they are upgrading to version 6.0.4. Which command is
useful to determine if the upgrade will be non-disruptive?
A. N7010-C1# show system redundancy ha status
B. N7010-C1# show incompatibility system
C. N7010-C1# install all
D. N7010-C1# show issu test bootflash:n7000-s1-system.6.0.4.bin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which option describes why the merge status for any application shows “In Progress” for a prolonged period of time when a new switch is added to the fabric?
A. The new switch must be upgraded to match the same version of code as the original switch.
B. The ports between the switches are not trunking all VSANs.
C. The application needs to be started on both switches.
D. There are outstanding changes that must be committed.
E. The merge status cannot occur until a copy running-config startup-config is done.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which three statements are true regarding trunking on an ISL between two switches in order for the VSAN to be trunked? (Choose three.)
A. The VSAN must be defined on both switches.
B. The VSAN must be on the VSAN allowed list.
C. All VSANs that are being trunked must be using either enhanced or non-enhanced mode zoning, but not both.
D. IVR must be configured for Cisco Fabric Services.
E. The device alias database must successfully merge.
F. There cannot be any duplicate domain IDs within an individual VSAN.
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
An administrator is deploying FCoE; however, a VFC interface will not come up. The administrator executes the commandshow platform software fcoe_mgr info interface vfc and displays the output.
What is the problem?
A. An incorrect VSAN number is being used.
B. The connected host does not support FIP.
C. FCoE is not enabled.
D. Priority flow control is not being negotiated with the converged network adapter.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
Cisco UCS users residing behind N5K2 are complaining about poor performance with a single LAN application in the data center. Which statement best explains what is wrong with N5K2?
A. Traffic balancing is based on the destination IP address.
B. Port channel members do not have equal bandwidths.
C. The trunk between the Nexus 5000 switches is filtering all VLANs.
D. E2/1 on N7010-C2 is not configured as a trunk for application traffic from N5K2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You receive a priority 1 trouble ticket that there is OSPF route instability in the data center core Cisco Nexus 7018 Switches. Which command is useful to help validate a theory that hello packets are being throttled?
A. N7018# show class-map interface control-plane
B. N7018# show policy-map interface control-plane
C. N7018# show service-policy interface control-plane
D. N7018# show copp status
E. N7018# show copp statistics
F. N7018# show control-plane class copp-system-class-critical
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
You have enabled configuration synchronization between two Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switches. You create a port channel on switch 1 and determine that it was not synchronized with its peer. The peer switch can be pinged on the
management VRF. When you check your peer status, you receive a “peer not reachable” message in the command output. What is the explanation for this?
A. CDP is disabled.
B. An LACP mismatch exists on the peer interfaces.
C. UDLD is disabled.
D. CFSoIP is disabled.
E. Multicast routing is enabled.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
While troubleshooting HSRP adjacency, a packet analyzer captures the remote packet with the information: IP 224.0.0.102 with a MAC address of 0000.0C9F.0256. The DCI local group number is 256.
Which solution resolves the problem?
A. Request that the remote data center change the HSRP version to V1.
B. Report the issue as a suspected bug because the group number is correct based on the analyzer.
C. Request that the remote data center verifies that they do not have an HSRP password configured.
D. Request that the remote data center to use the correct HSRP group number.
E. Change the local HSRP version to V1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two commands will show all the OTV edge devices and their MAC addresses in all sites in the overlay? (Choose two.)A. show otv adjacency overlay
B. show otv site
C. show otv vlan
D. show otv adjacency
E. show mac address-table
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
When your customers have NPV problems, which three actions should you take? (Choose three.)
A. Verify that the NPV core switch supports NPIV and that it is enabled.
B. Verify that all ports are properly configured and connected.
C. Ensure that the VLAN values are configured on both sides of the NPV core switch.
D. Verify the status of the servers and external interfaces, using the show npv server status command.
E. Ensure that the VSAN value that is configured on the device links is correct.
F. For all the device links, ensure that the port mode on the NPV device is in Full_port mode.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 27
To ensure that DCBX can be run on a switch, which other feature must be enabled?
A. Cisco Discovery Protocol
B. LLDP
C. Fibre Channel
D. IEEE 802.1ad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which command displays the traffic statistics for a port channel interface?
A. show interface port-channel channel-number
B. show port-channel traffic
C. show port-channel usage
D. show port-channel compatibility-parameters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
A customer calls you to report that it receives an error when entering the pinning max-links 4 command in FEX configuration mode on its Cisco Nexus 5596T Switch. Which of these is a likely cause for this condition?
A. The FEX fabric interface is down.
B. The transceiver is incorrect.
C. A fabric interface is in a port channel.
D. The fabric interface switchport mode is set to Access.
E. Only two fabric interfaces are connected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
NPV mode is not operating properly on a Cisco Nexus or Cisco MDS Series Switch. What are two reasons? (Choose two.)
A. An uplink NP port is stuck initializing.
B. The VSAN does not match at each end of the connection.
C. The VLAN does not match at each end of the connection.
D. The license is invalid.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 31
Which two statements about configuring NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only F, E, and SD ports are supported in NPV mode.
B. Only targets can be connected to an NPV device.
C. Distribute the NPV core switch links to different port groups for improved scalability.
D. If DPVM is configured on the NPV core switch for an end device that is connected to the NPV device, then that end device must be configured to be in the same VSAN.
E. NPV does not support NPIV-capable module servers (nested NPIV).
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 32
When using a Cisco Nexus 5500 and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, how can a port channel interface be configured?
A. Layer 3 interface
B. Layer 3 interface in non-admin VDC only
C. Layer 3 interface in admin VDC only
D. Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Which two commands can you issue on a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch to determine which interfaces are connected to fabric extenders? (Choose two.)
A. show fex-fabric interface
B. show fex
C. show fex fex-id
D. show fex interface
E. show fex detail
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 34
Refer to the exhibit. Which two issues cause a problem with the implementation of an OTV between data centers? (Choose two.)
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. incorrect control-group address
B. incorrect data-group range
C. overlapping control-group and data-ranges
D. incorrect MTU
E. incorrect IGMP version
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 35
The traffic across your port channels seems to be favoring one link over the other. How can you adjust the load-balancing policy to include source and destination MAC addresses, IP address, and TCP port?
A. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
B. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
C. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
D. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
What is the cause of the ISSU failure when using the command show system internal csm global info?
A. The command conf-t is holding a lock and not released it.
B. The SSN feature is not enabled on both switches.
C. The reference count is less than 1 due to a lack of successful config-sync.
D. It cannot be determined from the output.
E. An Administrator is logged in on another session and has a lock of the session data base to prevent ISSU.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two commands are used to determine the CoPP profile used on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series? (Choose two.)
A. #show copp profile
B. #show copp diff profile
C. #show copp status
D. #show running-config copp
E. #show policy-map interface control-plane
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 38
The installation of a new OTV network connecting two data centers via a service provider LAN has failed verification steps. Which statement explains why certain types of data are not being successfully transferred across the OTV network?
A. The number of extended VLANs across all configured overlays may be greater than 256.
B. The number of MAC addresses on either edge device may exceed 4000.
C. The additional 42-byte OTV overhead, along with the DF bit being set, may cause the service provider to drop packets based on their 1500 MTU settings.
D. Having more than two edge devices per site is not supported.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
FCoE traffic from C200-1 on VSAN 13 is not being switched through the network. Which statement explains the cause of the problem?
A. The LAN switchport on N5K2 must be configured as a trunk.
B. VLAN 1013 on N5K2 is not allowed on the LAN.
C. The vFC on N5K2 that is associated with VSAN 13 is in the wrong port mode.
D. The M1 card on the Nexus 7000 switch does not support FCoE.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
What are three reasons that could cause fabric merge problems in a Cisco SAN? (Choose three.)
A. Failure occurs when a switch supports more than 2000 zones per VSAN but its neighbor does not.
B. All devices are in the same VSAN.
C. The merged fabrics contain inconsistent data that could not be merged.
D. Both host and storage are logged in to the same SAN.
E. Small configurations may wipe out the large configurations.
F. The VSAN database is error-disabled.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 41
There is an ARP storm in VDC 1. Some users on VDC 2 notice that ARP is not resolving for their gateway on the Cisco Nexus core. What is the cause?
A. The ARP CoPP class committed information rate is exceeded, resulting in ARP loss in all VDCs.
B. The administrator has not correctly configured the ARP CoPP class in VDC 2.
C. The ARP traffic in VDC 1 is copied to the host ports in VDC 2, causing overutilization and output discards.
D. Because the ARP process in the default VDC (VDC 1) is responsible for processing ARP traffic for all VDCs, VDC 2 will be affected.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 42
A customer reports that a 10-Gb interface between a Cisco Nexus 7009 Switch and a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch is not passing traffic. The Nexus 7009 interface indicates up/up. The Nexus 5548UP interface indicates up/down. Which
feature should you enable to help isolate the root cause?
A. CDP
B. GOLD
C. UDLD
D. DAI
E. LACP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 43
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A. You must have an F Series module
B. You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabrciPath
C. ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
D. LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabrciPath
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 44
Which three commands will help an administrator identify any issues with an In-Service Software Upgrade? (Choose three.)
A. show cts interface
B. show incompatibility system
C. show license file
D. show install impact all
E. show lacp issu-impact
F. show install issu-failure
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit.
pass4itsure 300-180 question
The server port connected to the NPV edge switch does not come online. Which action should fix the problem?
A. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV into the same VSAN 99.
B. Move the NP ports on the NPV edge and the F ports on the NPIV in the default VSAN 1.
C. Move all the ports into VLAN 1.
D. Move all the ports into VSAN 99.
E. Move all the ports into VLAN 99.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 46
Which CLI command can tell which switch is on the other side of port channel 2 that is trunking VSAN 5?
A. show topology vsan 5
B. show interface port-channel 2 trunk vsan 5
C. show interface port-channel 2 vsan 5 peer-info
D. show fcs vsan 5
E. show fspf database vsan 5 interface port-channel 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator sees this message in the log while merging switch fabrics. What is the issue?
pass4itsure 300-180 question
A. Two switches have different zone names with the same members.
B. Two switches have different zone set names with the same members.
C. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name, but with different members.
D. Two switches have the same zone set and zone name with the same members.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 48
A customer is troubleshooting FCoE in its network. They have discovered that vFC is currently down and there is no active STP port state on the bound Ethernet interface. What should the STP port state be to correct this issue?
A. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for the native VLAN only.
B. The bound interface should be in an STP learning state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
C. The bound interface should be in an STP forwarding state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
D. The bound interface should be in an STP blocking state for both the native VLAN and the member FCoE VLAN that is mapped to the active VSAN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 49
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
pass4itsure 300-180 question
t has been determined that unknown unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic is not correctly being switched through either Nexus 7010 switch. Which statement best describes the cause of this issue?
A. No VLANs are allowed across the vPC peer link.
B. The MST STP is not enabled on either switch.
C. The default VLAN is inactive.
D. VTP is not configured to handle this type of traffic.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 50
You receive an error attempting to enable the vPC feature on a Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch. Which Cisco Fabric Services distribution must be operational before the feature can be enabled?
A. CFSoFC
B. CFSoIP
C. CFSoV
D. CFSoE
E. CFSoM
Correct Answer: D

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Free Pass4itsure Microsoft 74-678 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers(1-11)

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. License Mobility through Software Assurance (SA) is an SA benefit that provides users with the right to access Microsoft Office Professional Plus in a company’s Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) from computers that are not company owned, such as kiosk computers at hotels. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. License Mobility within Server Farms
C. Home Use Program
D. Roaming Use Rights
E. Windows Companion Subscription License
74-678 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
A customer purchases server licenses through a Select Plus agreement and has a Software Assurance Membership (SAM) for the server pool. To which three SAM benefits is the customer entitled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. E-Learning
B. Roaming Use Rights
C. Planning Services
D. Enhanced Edition Benefits
E. Training Vouchers
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Software Assurance Benefits:
There are over a dozen SA benefits and the amount of benefits your organization has depends on the licensing agreement. The list below highlights the most popular benefits associated with Office.
* (a) E-Learning
* (c) Planning services
* New software versions
* (e) Training vouchers
* Home Use Program
* 24×7 phone and web support
* Technet
* Microsoft Office Multi Language Pack
Reference: Microsoft Office 2010 Engineering, Understanding Software Assurance

QUESTION 3
A customer plans to deploy a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) by using Microsoft technologies. Users will access the deployment on-premises and at home from personal computers. You need to tell the customer which Software Assurance (SA) benefits can be used to enable a full VDI deployment. Which three SA benefits should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Windows Roaming Use Rights
B. Visualization Rights for Windows
C. Enhanced Edition Benefits
D. Windows Virtual Desktop Access (VDA) rights
E. Home Use Program
F. Windows Thin PC
74-678 dumps Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Extended roaming rights
Primary user of a VDA or SA device can access VDI desktop from any device outside the corporate firewall
C: Use any version of Windows
Upgrade/downgrade rights for Windows included
E: Software Assurance (SA) licensing provides Windows desktop customers with technical support, training vouchers, home-use rights and other benefits.

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A company named Contoso, Ltd. builds cloud applications. Microsoft Azure allows the company’s developers to deploy and manage their applications and to pay for only the resources that their applications use. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Windows Intune
C. A Power BI for Office 365 subscription
D. A Microsoft Office 365 Developer subscription
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. A customer plans to deploy a Microsoft Exchange Server infrastructure that has the following characteristics:
Two Exchange Server 2013 servers that each have two mailbox databases One thousand users who will have mailboxes that use Unified Messaging The customer needs to purchase two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
C. Two Exchange Server Enterprise server licenses and 1,000 Exchange Server Standard CALs
D. Two Exchange Server Standard server licenses, one Exchange Server External Connector, and 1,000 Exchange Server Enterprise CALs
74-678 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
A customer acquires Microsoft Office 365 add-ons through an Enterprise Agreement. The customer must consult the Volume Licensing Online Services Terms (OST) document to see whether the number of add-ons can be reduced at the anniversary of the agreement. Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct
A. No change is needed.
B. Microsoft Product List
C. Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR)
D. Microsoft Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Microsoft Volume Licensing Product Use Rights document, commonly referred to as “the PUR” (pronounced”per”), is part of your Microsoft Volume Licensing agreement. When you need to know how to license a particular product or the specifics of what you can do with that product under the terms of your license agreement, generally, the PUR has the information you need. The PUR details use rights for specific products and details the rights that apply to all software licensed through Microsoft Volume Licensing.
* When you purchase a software license through a Microsoft Volume Licensing program, the terms and conditions for how you can use the software are defined in the Volume Licensing Product Use Rights (PUR) document, Product List document, and program agreement.
Incorrect:
Not B: Product List (PL)
Published monthly, the Microsoft Product List (PL) provides information about availability, discontinuations, migration paths, and subscription benefits for Microsoft software and Online Services acquired through Volume Licensing programs.
not D: Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR)
The Services Provider Use Rights (SPUR) provides details on how products acquired through the Microsoft Services Provider License Agreement (SPLA) may be used.

QUESTION 7
A company has 1,000 desktop computers that run Windows 8.1. The company also has 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The company does not use server visualization.
You need to recommend a solution to manage all of the computers and the servers on the network. Which two licenses should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
B. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Standard server management license (ML)
C. Microsoft Core CAL Suite
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter server management license (ML)
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: System Center 2012 R2 Standard Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing non-virtualized and lightly virtualized servers
C: Need CAL licenses for the clients.
Incorrect:
Not D: System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers

QUESTION 8
A customer plans to implement a data center. All of the servers in the data center will run Windows Server 2012 R2. The customer will manage all virtual servers by using Microsoft System Center 2012 R2. The customer plans to be licensed for unlimited virtualization. You need to recommend a solution for the planned implementation. What should you recommend that the customer purchase?
A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter
B. System Center 2012 R2 Client Management Suite
C. System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter
D. Core Infrastructure Server Suite Datacenter
74-678 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
System Center 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition provides an easy and economical option for managing virtualized servers.

QUESTION 9
You need to identify the tasks that the customer can perform through the Microsoft Volume Licensing Center (MVLC). Which three tasks should you identify? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. View and manage licenses purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
B. Order on-premises software.
C. View and manage Software Assurance (SA) benefits purchased through a Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA).
D. Self-provision Online Services.
E. View and manage licenses purchased through an existing Select Plus agreement.
Correct Answer: ACD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Volume Licensing Service Center (VLSC) gives you easy access to:
* (C) Activate and consume Software Assurance benefits
* (D) Download products and keys
Volume Licensing benefits
Access all your licensing information in one location View your relationship summary and license summary details Review the status of your enrollments

QUESTION 10
A company named Contoso, Ltd. does not have an active Volume Licensing agreement. Contoso needs to purchase 575 Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 User Subscription Licenses (USLs). Through which agreement should Contoso acquire the licenses?
A. Server and Cloud Enrollment (SCE)
B. Open Value Subscription
C. Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA)
D. Select Plus
74-678 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
MPSA can benefit organizations with a minimum of 150 seats.

QUESTION 11
A customer is evaluating the purchase of Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise El User Subscription Licenses (USLs) through a Microsoft Online Subscription Agreement (MOSA), or by adding the licenses to an existing Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA). You need to tell the customer why they should purchase the USLs through the MPSA. What should you tell the customer?
A. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional rights.
B. It is easier to manage software assets if they are acquired through one agreement.
C. Office 365 Enterprise El USLs purchased through the MPSA have additional Software Assurance (SA) benefits.
D. License prices are approximately 50 percent less expensive when acquired through the MPSA.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The new Microsoft Products and Services Agreement (MPSA) is a single agreement for your Online Services, software, and Software Assurance purchases across your organization. It can save time and money by combining purchase points for the best price level and reducing the administrative overhead associated with managing multiple agreements.
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